Topic’s Weightage
| Subjects | No. of questions |
| Ancient Indian History | 4 |
| Medieval Indian History | 2 |
| 1757-1947 | 8 |
| Economics | 16 |
| Geography | 15 |
| Environment | 14 |
| International Relations | 12 |
| Polity | 15 |
| Science & Technology | 10 |
| Current Affairs | 4 |
| Total | 100 |
1. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana has been launched for
a. providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates
b. Promoting women’s Self Help Groups in backward areas
c. promoting financial inclusion in the country
d. providing financial help to marginalised communities
Answer: c. promoting financial inclusion in the country
Explanation:
The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) was launched with the primary objective of promoting financial inclusion in the country. It aims to ensure access to various financial services such as banking, savings accounts, remittances, credit, insurance, and pension to the marginalized sections of society, including the poor and unbanked populations.
2. With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
c. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
- The Fourteenth Finance Commission did indeed increase the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent. This was a significant devolution of funds from the central government to the states, aimed at empowering states financially and promoting fiscal federalism.
- Additionally, the Fourteenth Finance Commission made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants. These grants were aimed at addressing specific developmental needs and challenges faced by different states across various sectors such as health, education, infrastructure, and agriculture.
3. The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of:
a. ASEAN
b. BRICS
c. OECD
d. WTO
Answer: b. BRICS
Explanation:
The Fortaleza Declaration is related to the affairs of BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa., a grouping of major emerging economies.
It was adopted during the 6th BRICS Summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil, in July 2014. The declaration outlines the collective stance of the BRICS nations on various global issues, including economic cooperation, financial stability, sustainable development, and geopolitical matters.
BRICS summits often result in declarations or agreements that reflect the shared interests and goals of the member countries in promoting cooperation and addressing common challenges.
4. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?
1. Slowing economic growth rates
2. Less equitable distribution of national income
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
5. In the South Atlantic and South Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?
a. Sea Surface temperature are low
b. Inter Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
c. Coriolis force is too weak
d. Absence of land in those regions
Answer: a. Sea Surface temperature are low
6. Which of the following pairs of States of India indicates the eastern most and Western most State?
a. Assam and Rajasthan
b. Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
c. Assam and Gujarat
d. Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
Answer: d. Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
Explanation:
Arunachal Pradesh is located in the easternmost part of India, while Gujarat lies in the westernmost part. This geographical span covers the vast diversity and expanse of India from east to west.
7. Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given below are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 & 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 & 2
Explanation:
- The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) indeed aim to establish socio-economic democracy in the country by promoting the welfare of the people by securing and protecting certain rights.
- While the DPSP are not legally enforceable by the courts, they are still significant as they provide guidelines to the state for governance and policymaking.
- Source: Constitution of India
8. In the Index of Eight Core Industries, which one of the following is given the highest weight?
a. Coal Production
b. Electricity generation
c. Fertilizer Production
d. Steel Production
Answer: b. Electricity generation
Explanation:
In the Index of Eight Core Industries, electricity generation is given the highest weight. The Eight Core Industries comprise coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertilizers, steel, cement, and electricity. Among these, electricity generation has a significant impact on industrial activity and overall economic performance, hence it is assigned the highest weight in the index.
9. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?
a. Bhitarkanika National Park
b. Keibul Lamjao National Park
c. Keoladeo Ghana National park
d. Sultanpur National park
Answer: b. Keibul Lamjao National Park
Explanation:
Keibul Lamjao National Park, located in the Indian state of Manipur, is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation, particularly the phumdis (heterogeneous mass of vegetation, soil, and organic matter) that support a rich biodiversity. The park is renowned for being the last natural refuge of the endangered Manipur brow-antlered deer, also known as the Sangai deer. It is the world’s only floating park and is situated in the Loktak Lake.
10. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF)?
1. NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government
2. NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India’s premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
1. National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF) is indeed an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government. It was established in 2000 with the aim of providing institutional support for scouting, spawning, sustaining, and scaling up grassroots innovations across the country.
2. The second statement is incorrect. NIF’s primary focus is on grassroots innovation and traditional knowledge. While it collaborates with various national and international institutions, its core mission is to identify and support innovations developed by ordinary people at the grassroots level, rather than focusing on highly advanced scientific research in premier institutions.
11. What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture?
1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place
3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
Answer: c. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in the soil is not directly caused by excessive or inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria play a crucial role in converting atmospheric nitrogen into forms that plants can use, but their proliferation is typically not affected by the use of nitrogenous fertilizers.
2. Excessive use of nitrogenous fertilizers can lead to an increase in soil acidity. This happens because nitrogen fertilizers often contain ammonium or urea, which can undergo nitrification, releasing hydrogen ions and leading to soil acidification.
3. in the soil, they can easily dissolve in water and percolate down into the groundwater, contaminating it. This can have adverse effects on human health and the environment.
12. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.
Select the correct using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
IUCN is not an organ of the United Nations but an independent international organization. It does indeed run numerous field projects globally to promote natural environment management. CITES, an international agreement between governments, is legally binding for the states that have ratified it, but it does not replace national laws. Instead, it provides a framework to be reflected in the national legal system. For more detailed information, you can refer to the official websites of IUCN and CITES.
13. The Fair and Remunerative Price of Sugar-cane is approved by the
a. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
b. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
c. Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture
d. Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee
Answer: a. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
Explanation:
The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA.. The FRP is the minimum price that sugar mills are required to pay to sugarcane farmers. It is determined on the basis of recommendations made by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and is aimed at ensuring a fair deal to the farmers while considering the sugar industry’s economic viability.
14. What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?
a. The Earth’s rotation on its axis
b. Convergence of the two equatorial currents
c. Difference in salinity of water
d. Occurrence of the belt of calm near equator
Answer: b. Convergence of the two equatorial currents
Explanation:
The eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current is primarily explained by the convergence of the two equatorial currents: the North Equatorial Current and the South Equatorial Current. These two currents flow in opposite directions on either side of the equator due to the Coriolis effect caused by the Earth’s rotation. When these currents converge near the equator, they create a zone of reduced pressure, which drives the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current.
15. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
- Srisailam: Nallamala Hills – This pair is correctly matched. Srisailam is a famous pilgrimage center located in the Nallamala Hills of Andhra Pradesh, known for its ancient temple dedicated to Lord Shiva.
- Omkareshwar: Satmala Hills – This pair is incorrect. Omkareshwar is a pilgrimage site located in Madhya Pradesh, but it is situated on the banks of the Narmada River, not in the Satmala Hills.
- Pushkar: Mahadeo Hills – This pair is incorrect. Pushkar is a pilgrimage town in Rajasthan, known for its sacred lake and Brahma Temple. However, it is situated in the Aravalli Range, not the Mahadeo Hills.
16. With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’
2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha Gandhiji tried to use the Home Rule League
3. Demonstrations against the Simon Commission coincided with the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 1 and 2 only
17. Among the following which were frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola virus recently?
a. Syria and Jordan
b. Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia
c. Philippines and Papua New Guinea
d. Jamaica, Haiti and Surinam
Answer: b. Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia
Explanation:
The outbreak of the Ebola virus was predominantly centered in West Africa, particularly affecting Guinea, Sierra Leone, and Liberia. These countries experienced significant outbreaks of the Ebola virus disease from 2014 to 2016, resulting in thousands of cases and fatalities.
18. With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using the coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction
2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete
3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
c.1 and 3
d. 3 only
Answer: a. 1 and 2
Explanation:
- Fly ash, a byproduct of coal combustion in power plants, can indeed be used in the production of bricks for building construction. It serves as a pozzolan, improving the workability and durability of bricks.
- Fly ash is commonly used as a partial replacement for Portland cement in concrete production. It enhances the strength and durability of concrete while reducing the consumption of cement, thus making it more sustainable.
- While fly ash primarily consists of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide, it may also contain small amounts of other elements depending on the composition of the coal. However, when properly managed, fly ash does not pose significant environmental risks.
So, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
19. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 3 only
Answer: c. 1 and 3
Explanation:
The dugong is indeed a herbivorous marine mammal, feeding primarily on seagrasses, which aligns with statement 1. While dugongs are found in some coastal regions of India, including the Gulf of Mannar, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the Gulf of Kutch, they are not found along the entire coast of India, making statement 2 incorrect. Regarding legal protection, dugongs are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which provides them with the highest level of protection in India, thus making statement 3 correct.
20. Who of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India?
1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. G. Subramania Iyer
3. R. C. Dutt
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
Answer: d. 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
- Dadabhai Naoroji: He is often referred to as the Grand Old Man of India and was one of the early Indian nationalists who criticized colonial economic policies. He wrote extensively on the drain of wealth from India to Britain and highlighted the exploitation of India’s resources by the British colonial administration.
- G. Subramania Iyer: He was a prominent Indian lawyer, journalist, and politician who actively participated in the Indian nationalist movement. He criticized the economic exploitation of India by the British and advocated for economic self-sufficiency and industrialization.
- R. C. Dutt: Romesh Chunder Dutt was a prominent Indian civil servant, economic historian, and writer who also criticized colonial economic policies. He wrote extensively on the economic history of India and highlighted the negative impact of British rule on India’s economy, including the drain of wealth.
These individuals were among the leading economic critics of colonialism in India, advocating for economic reforms and greater auonomy for India’s economic development.
Source: Various historical texts and writings by Dadabhai Naoroji, G. Subramania Iyer, and R. C. Dutt.
21. Which one of the following issues the Global Economic Prospects report periodically?
a. The Asian Development Bank
b. The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
c. The US Federal Reserve Bank
d. The World Bank
Answer: d. The World Bank
Explanation:
The Global Economic Prospects report is issued periodically by the World Bank. This report provides an assessment of the global economic outlook, including forecasts for global growth, trends in major economies, and potential risks and challenges facing the world economy.
The report covers a wide range of topics related to global economic development, including issues such as poverty reduction, inequality, trade dynamics, and financial market conditions. It is a valuable resource for policymakers, economists, investors, and other stakeholders interested in understanding the current state and future prospects of the global economy.
Source: World Bank
22. When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen?
a. India’s GDP growth rate increases drastically
b. Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more capital into our country
c. Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates
d. It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking system.
Answer: c. Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates
Explanation:
When the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) by 50 basis points, it means that banks are required to hold a lower proportion of their deposits in the form of liquid assets such as government securities. This reduction in SLR frees up funds for banks to lend to businesses and individuals.
As a result, scheduled commercial banks may choose to cut their lending rates to attract more borrowers and stimulate borrowing and investment in the economy. Lower lending rates encourage businesses to take loans for expansion and investment, and individuals to take loans for consumption and investment purposes.
Reducing lending rates can boost economic activity, as it makes borrowing more affordable and stimulates demand for credit. Therefore, option c is the most likely outcome when the SLR is reduced.
Source: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) – Monetary Policy
23. With reference to the use of nanotechnology in health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology
2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
- Targeted drug delivery: Nanotechnology enables the precise targeting of drugs to specific cells or tissues in the body, minimizing side effects and increasing therapeutic efficacy. Nanoparticles can be engineered to carry drugs to their intended targets, such as tumor cells, allowing for more effective treatment while reducing damage to healthy cells.
- Contribution to gene therapy: Nanotechnology plays a crucial role in gene therapy by facilitating the delivery of genetic material (such as DNA or RNA. into target cells. Nanoparticles can protect and deliver genetic material to specific cells, allowing for the correction of genetic defects or the modulation of gene expression for therapeutic purposes.
These advancements highlight the potential of nanotechnology to revolutionize the field of medicine by enabling more precise and effective treatments.
24. In India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the
a. Essential Commodities Act, 1955
b. Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States
c. Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937
d. Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food Products Order, 1973
Answer: b. Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States
Explanation:
Markets in agricultural products in India are regulated primarily under the Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC. Act enacted by various states. These Acts provide for the establishment of APMCs, which are market committees responsible for the regulation and oversight of agricultural markets, including the buying, selling, and pricing of agricultural produce. APMCs facilitate fair trade practices, ensure the payment of minimum support prices to farmers, and provide infrastructure for the marketing of agricultural commodities.
Source: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Government of India.
25. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
a. Saltwater crocodile
b. Olive ridley turtle
c. Gangetic dolphin
d. Gharial
Answer: c. Gangetic dolphin
Explanation:
The Gangetic dolphin was declared as the national aquatic animal of India in 2009 to highlight its ecological significance and the need for its conservation. The Gangetic dolphin, also known as the South Asian river dolphin or Platanista gangetica, is primarily found in the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and their tributaries.
It plays a crucial role in maintaining the health of river ecosystems and is considered an indicator species for the conservation of riverine habitats.
Source: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India.
26. With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements:
1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat.
3. It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None
Answer: d. None
Explanation:
- The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) did not advocate the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes. Instead, it focused on socialist principles and policies within the Indian National Congress, aiming for social justice and independence from British rule through non-violent means. So, this statement is incorrect.
- While the CSP advocated socialist principles and reforms, including land reforms and the nationalization of key industries, it did not specifically aim to establish the dictatorship of the proletariat. Instead, it sought to promote democratic socialism and parliamentary democracy. So, this statement is incorrect.
- The CSP did not advocate separate electorates for minorities and oppressed classes. Instead, it emphasized the need for a united struggle against British imperialism and social injustices within the framework of the Indian National Congress. So, this statement is incorrect.
Therefore, the correct option is 4. None.
27. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
Answer: b. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- The Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding Money Bills. It cannot reject or amend them but can only make recommendations. However, the Lok Sabha may or may not accept these recommendations. So, the statement is correct.
- The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants, which are the expenditure proposals of various ministries and departments. Only the Lok Sabha has the authority to vote on the Demands for Grants. So, this statement is correct.
- The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) but cannot vote on it. The voting on the Budget takes place in the Lok Sabha. So, this statement is incorrect.
Therefore, the correct option is 2. 1 and 2 only.
28. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined
a. the separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature
b. the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
c. the powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy
d. None of the above
Answer: b. the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
Explanation:
The Government of India Act of 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, was an important constitutional reform enacted by the British Parliament to introduce limited self-government in India. One of its key provisions was the delineation of powers and jurisdictions between the central (imperial) government and the provincial governments.
This Act introduced the concept of dyarchy in the provincial administration, dividing powers between the elected Indian ministers and the British-appointed governors. It granted some legislative powers to the Indian Legislative Councils, both at the central and provincial levels. However, significant powers, especially in matters of finance, law and order, and administration, remained with the central government.
While the Act did not clearly define the separation of powers between the judiciary and the legislature or specify the powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy, it did lay the groundwork for subsequent constitutional developments in India.
29. Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for the Industrial Workers’?
a. The Reserve Bank of India
b. The Department of Economic Affairs
c. The Labour Bureau
d. The department of Personnel and Training
Answer: c. The Labour Bureau
Explanation:
The ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’ (CPI-IW) is brought out by the Labour Bureau, which is an attached office of the Ministry of Labour & Employment, Government of India. The CPI-IW is a crucial measure used for assessing changes in the cost of living for industrial workers in India. It is calculated based on the changes in prices of selected goods and services consumed by industrial workers.
The Labour Bureau conducts regular surveys to collect price data from selected retail markets across various regions in the country. This data is then used to calculate the CPI-IW, which is published monthly.
30. In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news :
1. It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.
2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter
3. It is buried deep in the ice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3 only
Answer: d. 1,2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Ice Cube is indeed the world’s largest neutrino detector, covering a cubic kilometer of ice at the South Pole. It functions as a telescope for searching for dark matter among other cosmic phenomena, thanks to its ability to detect neutrinos – nearly massless particles that rarely interact with matter. The detector is buried deep within the ice to shield it from other forms of radiation and to provide a clear environment for detecting neutrinos interacting with the ice. This setup allows scientists to study astrophysical phenomena via neutrinos that pass through the Earth and the ice from their cosmic sources.
31. The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the:
a. Food and Agriculture Organization
b. United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change
c. World Trade Organization
d. United Nations Environment Programme
Answer: c. World Trade Organization
Explanation:
The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’, and ‘Peace Clause’ are all related to international trade agreements under the auspices of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
- Agreement on Agriculture: This agreement is part of the Uruguay Round of negotiations under the WTO and aims to liberalize global trade in agricultural products by reducing trade barriers such as tariffs and subsidies.
- Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement): This agreement establishes rules and guidelines for member countries regarding food safety and animal and plant health standards to ensure that sanitary and phytosanitary measures are not used as unjustified trade barriers.
- Peace Clause: The Peace Clause is a provision within the Agreement on Agriculture that provides protection to developing countries against legal challenges from other member countries for exceeding agreed limits on domestic support for agricultural products. It essentially shields developing countries from being penalized for breaching subsidy limits under certain conditions.
These agreements and clauses are significant components of the international trade regime overseen by the WTO, which aims to promote free and fair trade among its member countries.
32. With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC. Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields
2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other
3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Correct: Near Field Communication (NFC. is indeed a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields to enable communication between devices when they are brought within close proximity, typically a few centimeters. This technology is commonly used for contactless payment systems, access control, and data exchange between devices like smartphones and smart cards.
- Incorrect: NFC is not designed for use by devices that can be at a distance of even a meter from each other. Its effective range is typically limited to a few centimeters, which is a key characteristic distinguishing it from other wireless communication technologies like Bluetooth or Wi-Fi.
- Correct: NFC can indeed use encryption when sending sensitive information. This encryption ensures that data transmitted via NFC remains secure and protected from unauthorized access or interception.
33. The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to:
a. Central Asia
b. Middle East
c. South-East Asia
d. Central Africa
Answer: b. Middle East
Explanation:
The Golan Heights is a region located in the Middle East, specifically in southwestern Syria, near the borders of Lebanon, Jordan, and Israel. It has been a contentious area due to its strategic location and its significance in regional conflicts, particularly between Israel and Syria.
Israel captured the Golan Heights from Syria during the Six-Day War in 1967 and later annexed it, a move that has not been recognized internationally. The area has since been a subject of dispute and conflict between Israel and Syria.
34. Convertibility of rupee implies:
a. being able to convert rupee notes into gold
b. allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces
c. freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa
d. developing an international market for currencies in India
Answer: c. freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa
Explanation:
Convertibility of rupee refers to the ability to freely convert the Indian rupee into other currencies and vice versa without significant restrictions or controls imposed by the government or central bank. It allows individuals and businesses to engage in international trade, investment, and financial transactions with greater flexibility.
35. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 3 only
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
Durgara corresponds to the present region of Jammu. Champaka, known as Chamba, and Kuluta, identified with Kulu, are both located in the northern Indian Himalayan areas, not Central India and Malabar, respectively.
36. Consider the following rivers:
1. Vamsadhara
2. Indravati
3. Pranahita
4. Pennar
Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 1,2 and 4
d. 2 and 3 only
Answer: d. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Vamsadhara: Vamsadhara is not a tributary of the Godavari River. It originates in the Eastern Ghats of Odisha and flows independently into the Bay of Bengal.
- Indravati: Indravati River is indeed a tributary of the Godavari River. It originates in the Kalahandi district of Odisha and flows through Chhattisgarh before joining the Godavari River in Maharashtra.
- Pranahita: Pranahita River is also a tributary of the Godavari River. It originates in the Vidarbha region of Maharashtra and merges with the Godavari River in Telangana.
- Pennar: Pennar River is not a tributary of the Godavari River. It originates in Karnataka and flows through Andhra Pradesh, draining into the Bay of Bengal separately.
Therefore, the correct tributaries of the Godavari River are options 2 and 3.
37. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by
a. a simple majority of member present and voting
b. three-fourths majority of member present and voting
c. two-thirds majority of the House
d absolute majority of the House
Answer: a. a simple majority of member present and voting
Explanation:
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament due to a disagreement between the two Houses, it needs to be passed by a simple majority of members present and voting. This means that if more than half of the members present and voting in the joint sitting support the bill, it will be considered passed.
Source: Constitution of India – Article 108
38. Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?
a. North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
b. South-West Bengal
c. Southern Saurashtra
d. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: d. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Explanation:
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, located in the Bay of Bengal, have a unique combination of mangrove forests, evergreen forests, and deciduous forests. These islands are known for their rich biodiversity and varied ecosystems.
- Mangrove Forests: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have extensive mangrove forests along their coastlines. Mangrove forests thrive in the intertidal zones of tropical and subtropical regions, and they play a crucial role in coastal protection, biodiversity conservation, and carbon sequestration.
- Evergreen Forests: The islands also have lush evergreen forests, especially in the higher elevations and wetter regions. Evergreen forests are characterized by dense vegetation and a continuous canopy cover throughout the year, supported by abundant rainfall and high humidity.
- Deciduous Forests: Additionally, parts of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands are covered with deciduous forests, which shed their leaves seasonally in response to changes in rainfall patterns. Deciduous forests are found in areas with distinct wet and dry seasons.
The diverse forest types in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands contribute to the islands’ ecological richness and support a wide range of plant and animal species.
39. Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of Buddha?
1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1,3 and 4
d. 3 and 4 only
Answer: d. 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
- Avanti: Avanti was not directly associated with the life of Buddha. It was an ancient kingdom located in present-day Madhya Pradesh, but there is no significant historical evidence to suggest a direct connection between Avanti and the life of Buddha.
- Gandhara: Gandhara was a region in present-day northern Pakistan and eastern Afghanistan. It was associated with the life of Buddha as it was one of the important centers of Buddhist culture and art. Gandhara art, characterized by its distinctive style of sculpture influenced by Hellenistic and Indian traditions, flourished in the region during the time of Buddha.
- Kosala: Kosala was an ancient kingdom located in present-day Uttar Pradesh, India. It was closely associated with the life of Buddha as he spent a significant part of his life in the Kosala region. Buddha was born in Lumbini, which was situated within the borders of the Kosala kingdom, and he delivered many of his sermons and teachings in the Kosala region.
- Magadha: Magadha was an ancient kingdom located in present-day Bihar, India. It was closely associated with the life of Buddha as Buddha spent a considerable amount of time in the Magadha region. Rajgir, one of the important cities of Magadha, was the venue for several important events in Buddha’s life, including the first Buddhist council.
40. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?
a. Bretton Woods Conference
b. Montreal Protocol
c. Kyoto Protocol
d. Nagoya Protocol
Answer: b. Montreal Protocol
Explanation:
The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production and use of ozone-depleting substances (ODS). It was agreed upon on September 16, 1987, in Montreal, Canada, and entered into force on January 1, 1989. The protocol has been ratified by nearly every country in the world.
The Montreal Protocol aims to gradually eliminate the production and consumption of substances such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, and other ozone-depleting chemicals that contribute to the depletion of the ozone layer in the Earth’s stratosphere. By reducing the use of these harmful substances, the protocol helps prevent harmful ultraviolet radiation from reaching the Earth’s surface, thus safeguarding human health and the environment.
The Montreal Protocol is widely regarded as one of the most successful environmental agreements, as it has led to significant reductions in ODS production and has contributed to the recovery of the ozone layer.
41. Consider the following:
The arrival of Babur into India led to the
1. introduction of gunpowder
2. introduction of the arch and dome in the regions’s architecture
3. establishment of Timurid dynasty
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
Answer: b. 3 only
42. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
a. Human Rights Commission
b. Finance Commission
c. Law Commission
d. Planning Commission
Answer: d. Planning Commission
Explanation:
The Government of India replaced the Planning Commission with NITI Aayog. NITI Aayog, or the National Institution for Transforming India, was established on January 1, 2015, by an executive resolution of the Government of India. It serves as a policy think tank and advisory body to the government, providing strategic and technical advice on various aspects of policy formulation and implementation.
NITI Aayog differs from the Planning Commission in several key aspects. Unlike the Planning Commission, which operated under a centralized planning approach, NITI Aayog adopts a more decentralized and cooperative approach, involving states in the process of policy formulation and implementation. Additionally, NITI Aayog focuses on fostering cooperative federalism and promoting competitive and cooperative federalism among states.
43. What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?
a. It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
b. It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
c. It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change
d. It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity
Answer: a. It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
Explanation:
The Rio+20 Conference, also known as the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD., was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in June 2012. The conference marked the 20th anniversary of the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED., also known as the Earth Summit.
Rio+20 brought together world leaders, government officials, and representatives from civil society and the private sector to discuss and address sustainable development challenges, including poverty eradication, social equity, and environmental protection. The conference focused on two main themes: (1) a green economy in the context of sustainable development and poverty eradication, and (2) the institutional framework for sustainable development.
44. Consider the following statements:
1. The Executive Power of the union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Statement 1: The executive power of the Union of India is not vested solely in the Prime Minister. In India, the executive power is vested in the President of India, who acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. While the Prime Minister holds significant executive authority, the ultimate authority rests with the President.
Statement 2: The Prime Minister is not the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. The Civil Services Board is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, who is the highest-ranking civil servant in India. The Cabinet Secretary serves as the head of the civil services and is responsible for coordinating the functioning of the government machinery.
Therefore, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.
45. The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of
a. the limits of habitable zone above the surface of the Earth
b. regions inside the Earth-like planets in outer space
c. search for the Earth-like planets in outer space
d. search for meteorites containing precious metals
Answer: c. search for the Earth-like planets in outer space
Explanation:
The term Goldilocks Zone refers to the habitable zone around a star where conditions are just right for the existence of liquid water on the surface of a planet. This term originates from the children’s story Goldilocks and the Three Bears, where Goldilocks searches for the perfect conditions in the bears’ home, much like scientists search for planets with the right conditions for life.
In astronomy, the Goldilocks Zone is crucial in the search for exoplanets (planets outside our solar system) that could potentially harbor life. Planets located within this zone are not too hot or too cold, but just at the right distance from their host star to support liquid water, a key ingredient for life as we know it.
46. Who of the following organized a march on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?
a. V.O Chidambaram Pillai
b. C. Rajagopalachari
c. K. Kamaraj
d. Annie Besant
Answer: b. C. Rajagopalachari
Explanation:
C. Rajagopalachari, also known as Rajaji, organized a march on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930. This event was part of the Civil Disobedience Movement led by Mahatma Gandhi, which aimed to challenge British colonial rule in India by nonviolent means.
Rajagopalachari’s involvement in the Salt Satyagraha demonstrated his commitment to India’s independence struggle and his willingness to participate in acts of civil disobedience against unjust colonial laws.
47. Who of the following founded a new city on the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a deity to whom all the land south of the river Krishna was supposed to belong?
a. Amoghavarsha I
b. Ballala II
c. Harihara I
d. Prataparudra II
Answer: c. Harihara I
Explanation:
Harihara I is the correct answer. He founded a new city on the south bank of the Tungabhadra River, a tributary of the Krishna River, and ruled his kingdom as the agent of the deity Virupaksha. Harihara I was the founder of the Vijayanagara Empire, which he established with his control over the valley of the Tungabhadra, expanding his domain to include regions of the Konkan and Malabar Coasts.
48. Consider the following statements:
1. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The first woman to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress was Annie Besant, not Sarojini Naidu. Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman to hold the post.
Statement 2 is correct. Badruddin Tyabji was indeed the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress.
Therefore, the correct answer is b. 2 only.
49. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1: This statement is correct. The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is indeed intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. It aims to support projects and programs that help developing countries reduce their greenhouse gas emissions and enhance their resilience to the impacts of climate change.
Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is not founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank, and World Bank. Instead, it was established by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC. as a financial mechanism to support the efforts of developing countries in addressing climate change.
Therefore, the correct answer is option a. 1 only.
50. Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was given to which of the following?
a. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
b. Indian Institute of Science
c. Indian Space Research Organization
d. Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
Answer: c. Indian Space Research Organization
Explanation:
The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize is awarded annually by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust to individuals or organizations for their contributions to promoting international peace, development, and a new international economic order; ensuring that scientific discoveries are used for the larger good of humanity; and contributing to the struggle to safeguard human rights, freedom, and the dignity of man.
In 2014, the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) was awarded the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for its contributions to space research and its efforts to promote international cooperation in the peaceful uses of outer space.
ISRO’s achievements, including its successful satellite launches, missions to the Moon and Mars, and advancements in satellite technology for societal benefit, were recognized by the award.
Source: Press Information Bureau, Government of India