Topic’s Weightage
| Subjects | No. of questions |
| Ancient Indian History | 10 |
| Medieval Indian History | 1 |
| 1757-1947 | 2 |
| Economics | 12 |
| Agriculture | 2 |
| Geography | 24 |
| Environment | 6 |
| International Relations | 12 |
| Polity | 13 |
| Indian Society | 1 |
| Security | 3 |
| Science & Technology | 10 |
| Current Affairs | 4 |
| Total | 100 |
1.Consider the following statements with reference to India:
1. According to the โMicro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006โ, the โmedium enterprisesโ are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
Explanation:
Medium enterprises under the MSMED Act, 2006, are not defined by the investment range of Rs. 15 crore to Rs. 25 crore; this range can vary and has been updated over time and is currently as follows:
Micro Industry:
Investment: Upto 1 Cr
Turnover: Upto 5 Cr
Small Industry:
Investment: Upto 10 Cr
Turnover: Upto 50 Cr
Medium Industry:
Investment: Rs. 50 Cr.
Turnover: Rs. 250 Cr.
2. It is correct that all bank loans to the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) qualify under the priority sector lending of banks, as directed by the Reserve Bank of India.
With reference to Central Bank digital currencies,Consider the following statements:
1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.
With of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Explanation :
1. Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) can operate independently of the US dollar or the SWIFT system as they are digital currencies.
SWIFT is a messaging network used by Banks and Financial institutions and it is overseen by the G-10 Central Banks, including that of the US and the European Central Bank.
There are two types of CBDCs – CBDC(Wholesale) and CBSC (Retail)
2. CBDCs can be programmed with specific conditions, such as a time-frame for spending, due to the digital and programmable nature of such currencies.
3. In the context of finance, the term โbetaโ refers to
a. the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms
b. an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
c. a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
d. a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
Answer: d. a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
Explanation: Beta (ฮฒ) is a measure of the volatilityโor systematic riskโof a security or portfolio compared to the market as a whole. Stocks with a value of beta greater than1. 0 means that they have higher volatility than the market standard.
4.Consider the following statements:
1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2. In a SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None of the above
Answer: b. Only two
Explanation:
1. Incorrect.
The GoI, NABARD and RBI were largely responsible for the development of SHGs in India.
2. Correct.
All members collectively take responsibility for the loan.
3. Correct.
The RRBs and the Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs by giving them loans, often at slightly concessional rates and terms.
5.Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Indiaโs public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement II: Under Indiaโs decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Explanation:
1. As of today, the Public Health Care system is largely focused on curative care.
However, at the Policy level, the Ayushman Bharat Scheme focuses on delivering comprehensive healthcare including preventive, promotive and rehabilitative healthcare.
At the ground level – the public health care system continues to struggle to even deliver basic curative healthcare.
From a policy perspective – Ayushman Bharat hopes to deliver integrated healthcare.
Statement 1 is correct.
2. Statement 2 is correct. States are responsible for delivering health care services to the citizens. But that is not the reason for Statement1.
6.Consider the following statements:
Statement I: According to the United Nationsโ โWorld Water Development Report, 2022โ, India extracts more than quarter of the worldโs groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the Worldโs groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of worldโs population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. India does extract more than 25% of all the groundwater extracted in the World.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India extracts the groundwater mainly for irrigation purposes. Studies have shown that almost 89% of all groundwater extracted is used for agricultural and irrigation purposes.
7.Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: a. Only one
Explanation:
1. Statement 1 is correct.
Art 355 – It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
2. Statement 2 is correct.
Preventive detainees do not have the right to legal counsel even though Right to Legal Counsel is a fundamental right guranteed under Article 22 (Prevention against arrest and detention in certain cases).
8. Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?
a. Angola
b. Costa Rice
c. Ecuador
d. Somalia
Answer: d. Somalia
Explanation: Somalia has seen civil strife, absence of law and order and food shortages. The food shortages have also been compounded by locust attacks on standing crops in recent years.
9. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
1. Statement 1 is correct.
The sharing of commercial success from the use of local genetic resources is one of the main takeaways of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Act, 2002, provides the framework to set up Biodiversity Management committees.
2. Statement 2 is correct.
The Biodiversity Management committees help in Access to the genetic resources. They also define how the benefit shared between the local communities and the corporates/research bodies that make use of the genetic resource or traditional knowledge.
10.Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
Answer: a. Only one
Explanation:
1. Statement 1 is incorrect. Nominated members do not participate in the election of the President.
2. Statement 2 is Incorrect. Value of vote of each MLA depends on the total number of seats in the House and the population of the State based on which the delimitation is made a prior.
3. Statement 3 is Incorrect.
4. Statement 4 is Correct.
11.Consider the following countries:
1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border the Ukraine?
a. Only two
b. Only three
c. Only four
d. Only five
Answer: a. Only two
Explanation:
Hungary and Romania share a land border with Ukraine. Others do not.
Please study the area using Google Maps or an Atlas.
12. With reference to the Earthโs atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
a. The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
b. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
c. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
d. Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation
Answer: c. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
Explanation:
Insolation – The amount of solar radiation reaching a particular area
1. The amount of insolation at the Poles is about 40% that of the equator. It is not 10%.
2. Incorrect
3. Most of the IR waves are largely absorbed by water vapour, ozone and other gases. So,Statement c is correct.
4. IR is not part of the visible spectrum
13. Consider the following statements:
Statements-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
Statements-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement I is correct Statement II is incorrect
d. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: d. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Explanation:
1. Due to comparatively higher soil erosion in tropical rainforests, the forest soil is not rich in nutrients.
2. Statement 2 is correct. High temperature and moisture help dead organic matter to decompose quicker.
14. Consider the following statements:
Statements-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statements-II: The specfic heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: d. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Explanation:
1. It is difficult to say this for certain as it depends on the geography of a certain area.
2. Statement 2 is correct. The Specific heat of water is far greater than that of the land surface. It is for this reason that land heats up and cools down more quickly than the sea.
15. Consider the following statements:
1. In a seismograph, P-waves are recorded earlier than S-waves.
2. In P-waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. In a seismograph, P-waves (primary waves) are typically recorded before S-waves (secondary waves) during an earthquake. P-waves are the fastest seismic waves and travel through solids, liquids, and gases, whereas S-waves are slower and can only travel through solids.
Statement 2 is also correct. In P-waves, the particles vibrate in the same direction as the wave propagation, which is back and forth parallel to the direction of travel. In contrast, in S-waves, the particles vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, causing them to move up and down or side to side.
16. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India,Consider the following statements:
1. None of them uses seawater.
2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
3. None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None of them
Answer: d. None of them
Explanation:
1. None of them uses seawater.
ThisStatement is incorrect. Several coal-based thermal power plants in India do use seawater for their cooling processes, particularly those located along the coastal regions. For instance, the Mundra Thermal Power Station in Gujarat uses seawater for cooling, demonstrating the practicality and necessity of utilizing seawater in coastal power plants to conserve freshwater resources.
2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
ThisStatement is also incorrect. India’s thermal power plants are often located in areas that are either already water-stressed or are at risk of becoming water-stressed. The reliance on large volumes of water for cooling and other processes in thermal power plants contributes to significant water stress in these regions.
3. None of them is privately owned.
ThisStatement is incorrect. A substantial portion of Indiaโs coal-based thermal power capacity is owned by private companies. Major private players like Tata Power, Adani Power, and Reliance Power own and operate significant coal-based power plants in India.
Therefore, none of the statements provided are correct, as each describes an inaccurate characterization of coal-based thermal power plants in India.
17. Wolbachia method is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
a. Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
b. Converting crop residues into packing material
c. Producing biodegradable plastics
d. Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass
Answer: a. Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
Explanation:
The Wolbachia method is a biological control method used to reduce the transmission of viral diseases such as dengue, Zika, and chikungunya by mosquitoes. Wolbachia are naturally occurring bacteria that can be introduced into mosquito populations to reduce their ability to transmit viruses.
When mosquitoes infected with Wolbachia mate with uninfected mosquitoes, the resulting eggs fail to hatch or the offspring die before reaching adulthood, thereby reducing the overall mosquito population and the spread of viral diseases.
18.Consider the following activities:
1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters.
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: c. All three
Explanation:
- Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively is considered as a method for carbon capture and sequestration. This process, known as enhanced weathering, involves the natural chemical reactions between carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and minerals in rocks, such as basalt. As the basalt weathers over time, it absorbs carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and stores it in the form of carbonate minerals.
- Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime is another method considered for carbon capture and sequestration. By increasing the alkalinity of seawater, it is hypothesized that more carbon dioxide can be absorbed from the atmosphere and stored in the form of bicarbonate ions or carbonate minerals in the ocean.
- Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters is a technique known as carbon capture and storage (CCS). This method involves capturing carbon dioxide emissions from industrial sources such as power plants and injecting them underground into geological formations, such as depleted oil and gas reservoirs or saline aquifers, for long-term storage.
19. โAerial metagenomicsโ best refers to which one of the following situations?
a. Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
b. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
c. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
d. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
Answer: a. Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
Explanation:
Aerial metagenomics refers to the process of collecting environmental DNA (eDNA) samples from the air in a habitat. This involves capturing genetic material (DNA) present in airborne particles, such as dust, pollen, spores, and microorganisms, using specialized air sampling devices.
These samples can then be analyzed to understand the microbial diversity, composition, and genetic characteristics present in the atmosphere of a particular habitat.
20. โMicrosatellite DNAโ is used in the case of which one of the following?
a. Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
b. Stimulating โstem cellsโ to transform into diverse functional tissues
c. Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
d. Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population
Answer: a. Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
Explanation:
Microsatellite DNA, also known as short tandem repeats (STRs) or simple sequence repeats (SSRs), consists of short sequences of DNA repeated in tandem. These repetitive sequences are highly polymorphic and vary in length between individuals, making them valuable markers for studying genetic variation within and among populations.
Microsatellite markers are commonly used in population genetics, evolutionary biology, and conservation genetics to investigate genetic diversity, population structure, gene flow, and evolutionary relationships among species of fauna (animals) and flora (plants).
21. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with
a. archaeological excavations
b. establishment of English Press in Colonial India
c. establishment of Churches in Princely States
d. construction of railways in Colonial India
Answer: a. archaeological excavations
Explanation:
Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were associated with archaeological excavations in India. They were prominent archaeologists and historians who contributed significantly to the study, exploration, and preservation of India’s rich archaeological heritage.
Alexander Rea: He was a British archaeologist who conducted excavations at various archaeological sites in India, including Taxila and Sanchi.
A. H. Longhurst: He was an archaeologist and art historian known for his work on Indian art and architecture, particularly the caves of Ajanta and Ellora.
Robert Sewell: He was a British civil servant and historian who authored several works on South Indian history and archaeology, including A Forgotten Empire: Vijayanagar.
James Burgess: He was a Scottish antiquarian and archaeologist who conducted extensive excavations and surveys at historical sites across India, including Hampi, Elephanta Caves, and Sanchi Stupa.
Walter Elliot: He was a British colonial administrator and archaeologist who conducted archaeological excavations in South India, particularly in the Madras Presidency.
Together, these individuals played crucial roles in the exploration, documentation, and interpretation of India’s archaeological treasures.
22.Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None of the above
Answer: b. Only two
Explanation:
- Besnagar: Besnagar, also known as Vidisha, is well known for its Buddhist remains, including the Great Stupa of Sanchi, which is a prominent Buddhist monument. It is not primarily known for a Shaivite cave shrine.
- Bhaja: Bhaja is indeed famous for its Buddhist cave shrine. The Bhaja Caves are ancient Buddhist rock-cut caves located in Maharashtra, India, dating back to the 2nd century BCE.
- Sittanavasal: Sittanavasal is renowned for its Jain cave shrine. It houses the famous Sittanavasal Cave, which contains exquisite Jain rock-cut sculptures and paintings dating back to the 2nd century BCE to the 8th century CE.
Therefore, only the pairs Bhaja: Buddhist cave shrine and Sittanavasal: Jain cave shrine are correctly matched.
23.Consider the following statements:
Statement I: 7 August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
Statement II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. 7th August is the National Handloom Day. It was declared as such in the year 2015.
Statement II is also correct. Swadeshi movement was a movement to promote Indian goods, especially Indian made handloom cloth. Swadeshi Movement started on 7th Aug, 1905. Hence, this day is now celebrated as National Handloom Day.
24.Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement-I : One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
Statement II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement I is correct Statement II is incorrect
d. Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct
Answer: d. Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct
Explanation:
Statement I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
This Statement is incorrect. The Flag Code of India specifies several standard sizes for the National Flag, but none include the dimensions 600 mm x 400 mm. The prescribed sizes are designed to maintain the correct proportion (length to height ratio) and typically start from 150 mm x 100 mm and go up to 6300 mm x 4200 mm. All these sizes maintain the ratio of 3:2.
Statement II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
This Statement is correct. According to the Flag Code of India, 2002, the ratio of the length to the height (width) of the National Flag of India should be 3:2. This ratio is meticulously followed in all the official specifications to ensure uniformity and consistency in the flags produced and flown across the nation.
Therefore, only Statement II is correct, confirming that the flag’s proportions are indeed regulated to be 3:2, while Statement I incorrectly lists a size not officially recognized by the Flag Code.
25.Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
Statement I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26 November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement II: On 26 November, 1949, the constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th Nov, 1949. Hence, this day is celebrated as Constitution Day.
Statement II is incorrect. The Drafting committee was set up on 29th Aug, 1947. On 26th Nov, 1949, the Constitution was first adopted.
26.Consider the following statements:
Statement โ I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement โ II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
d. Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Explanation:
Statement-I:
Switzerland is indeed one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Despite not having significant gold mines, Switzerland is a major hub in the global gold market, primarily due to its role in the refining, melting down, consolidating, and re-exporting of gold sourced from different countries. Swiss refineries are estimated to handle about two-thirds of the world’s gold processing.
Statement-II:
This Statement is incorrect. Switzerland does not have the second largest gold reserves in the world. The countries with the largest gold reserves are typically the United States, Germany, and the International Monetary Fund, which hold significantly larger gold reserves. Switzerland’s gold reserves rank much lower in comparison to these entities.
Therefore, while Switzerland is indeed a significant player in the gold export market, it does not hold the second largest gold reserves globally.
27.Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and technology council.
Statement II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
d. Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Explanation:
Statement I: The United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have indeed launched the Trade and Technology Council (TTC). This council aims to strengthen trade and investment ties between the two entities, enhance cooperation on technological issues, and address shared challenges related to trade and technology.
Statement II: The claim that the USA and the EU are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control is not an accurate representation of the objectives of the Trade and Technology Council. While the TTC seeks to enhance collaboration on technology-related issues, its primary focus is on fostering innovation, promoting competitiveness, and addressing emerging challenges in areas such as digital trade, artificial intelligence, and cybersecurity. It is not aimed at controlling technological progress but rather facilitating cooperation and ensuring mutual benefits.
28.Consider the following statements :
Statement I: India accounts for3. 2% of global export of goods.
Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India took advantage of Indiaโs โProduction-linked Incentiveโ scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Explanation:
Statement I: India’s share in global exports of goods is indeed around3. 2%, as per recent data. This indicates India’s participation in international trade and its significance as a trading nation.
Statement II: It is true that many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme. The PLI scheme aims to boost domestic manufacturing across various sectors by providing financial incentives to companies based on their incremental production. While the PLI scheme may contribute to India’s export competitiveness in the long run by enhancing domestic manufacturing capabilities, it alone does not directly impact India’s share in global exports of goods.
29. Consider the following statements:
The โStability and Growth Pactโ of the European Union is a treaty that
1. Limits the levels of budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union.
2. Makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities.
3. Enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: a. Only one
Explanation:
Statement 1: The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) of the European Union indeed limits the levels of budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union. It aims to ensure fiscal discipline among member states by setting specific criteria for government deficits and debt levels.
Statement 2: The Stability and Growth Pact does not mandate countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities. It primarily focuses on fiscal policies and economic coordination rather than infrastructure sharing.
Statement 3: Similarly, the Stability and Growth Pact does not facilitate the sharing of technologies among EU countries. Its main objective is to promote fiscal stability and sustainable economic growth.
30.Consider the following statements:
1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the โGlobal Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)โ.
2. The objective and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
3. The GCM address internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: a. Only one
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct. The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM) was indeed adopted by all United Nations member states in December 2018. It is the first-ever global agreement on a common approach to international migration.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The commitments outlined in the GCM are not legally binding on UN member countries. Instead, it is a non-legally binding agreement aimed at providing a cooperative framework for managing migration effectively.
Statement 3: Incorrect. While the GCM primarily focuses on international migration, it does acknowledge the importance of addressing internal migration and internally displaced persons (IDPs) in certain contexts. However, its main emphasis is on international migration.
31.Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:
1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up one year of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is indeed a safe motherhood intervention, primarily executed through the National Health Mission by the state health departments to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among the poor pregnant women.
Statement II is correct: The main objective of JSY is to decrease maternal and neonatal mortality rates, especially among the poor and marginalized sections of society.
Statement III is correct: JSY specifically aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. It provides cash assistance to mothers for giving birth in hospitals, thereby increasing institutional deliveries to ensure professional health care during delivery.
Statement IV is incorrect: JSY does not include objectives to provide public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. Its focus is primarily on promoting institutional deliveries and ensuring safe motherhood. Care for sick infants up to one year of age is covered under different programs like the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and other child health programs under the National Health Mission.
32.Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:
1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant Women.
2. It runs a campaign for delayed Cord clamping at the time of child birth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: c. All three
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct. The Anaemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) strategy includes prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents, and pregnant women as part of its interventions to combat anaemia.
Statement 2: Correct. The AMB strategy promotes delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth, which helps in reducing the risk of anaemia in newborns by allowing more blood to flow from the placenta to the infant.
Statement 3: Correct. Periodic deworming of children and adolescents is indeed a component of the AMB strategy. Deworming helps in reducing the burden of intestinal parasites, which can contribute to anaemia.
Statement 4: Correct. The AMB strategy aims to address both nutritional and non-nutritional causes of anaemia. It focuses on endemic pockets where anaemia prevalence is high and includes interventions targeting diseases like malaria, hemoglobinopathies (genetic disorders affecting hemoglobin), and fluorosis (excessive fluoride consumption leading to dental and skeletal issues), which are known to contribute to anaemia.
33.Consider the following statements:
1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct. Carbon fibers are indeed used in the manufacture of various components used in automobiles and aircraft. They are valued for their high strength-to-weight ratio and are commonly used in applications where lightweight and high strength are essential, such as aerospace and automotive industries.
Statement 2: Incorrect. Carbon fibers can be recycled. While it may be challenging and costly compared to recycling other materials like metals, various methods and technologies are being developed to recycle carbon fibers from waste composites and manufacturing scrap. Recycling carbon fibers can help reduce waste and environmental impact associated with their disposal.
34.Consider the following action:
1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off the hard drive.
3. Detection of the tilt of the smart-phone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode.
In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: c. All three
Explanation:
- Detection of car crash/collision: Accelerometers are commonly used in automotive airbag systems to detect sudden deceleration or impact, such as in the event of a collision. When a crash is detected, the accelerometer triggers the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously to protect occupants.
- Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop: Many modern laptops are equipped with accelerometers, often called free fall sensors or motion sensors. These sensors detect sudden movements or changes in orientation, such as a free fall, and trigger protective measures like parking the hard drive heads to prevent data loss or damage.
- Detection of the tilt of the smartphone: Accelerometers are integral components of smartphones and other portable electronic devices. They detect changes in orientation, tilt, or movement of the device and enable features like automatic screen rotation between portrait and landscape modes based on the device’s orientation.
35. Which reference to the role of biofilter in Recirculating Aquaculture System,Consider the following statement
1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste in nitrate.
3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: a. Only one
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect: While biofilters are crucial in waste treatment in aquaculture systems, their primary function is not to remove uneaten fish feed directly. Instead, they are primarily responsible for converting harmful ammonia from fish waste into less harmful substances through nitrification. Mechanical filters are often used to remove solid waste, including uneaten feed.
Statement II is correct: Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste into nitrate. This is a key function of biofilters in RAS. The process involves nitrifying bacteria that convert ammonia (NH3) to nitrite (NO2-) and then from nitrite to nitrate (NO3-), making the environment safer for fish.
Statement III is incorrect: Biofilters do not specifically increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in the water. The main role of biofilters is to handle nitrogenous waste through the process of nitrification. The management of phosphorus levels usually involves other methods, such as controlling feed input and other water treatment processes to remove excess phosphorus.
36.Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: a. Only one
Explanation:
1. Cepheids: Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
This pair is incorrect. Cepheids are not giant clouds of dust and gas; they are actually a type of star known as pulsating variables. Cepheid variables are stars that pulsate radially, varying in both diameter and temperature, which leads to them brightening and dimming in a regular pattern over time. They are used as standard candles to measure distances in space because of their predictable luminosity pattern.
2. Nebulae: Stars which brighten and dim periodically
This pair is also incorrect. Nebulae are not stars; they are actually giant clouds of dust and gas in space. Nebulae can be regions where new stars are being born (star-forming nebulae, like the Orion Nebula) or the remnants of dead or dying stars (such as the Crab Nebula).
3. Pulsars: Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse
This pair is correct. Pulsars are indeed a type of neutron star, which is formed from the collapsed core of a massive star after a supernova explosion. Pulsars are highly magnetized and rotate very rapidly, emitting beams of electromagnetic radiation from their magnetic poles. As the star spins, these beams are detected as pulses of radiation, which is why they are called pulsars.
Therefore, only the third pair (Pulsars) is correctly matched, making the answer only one pair correctly matched.
37. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?
a. Australia
b. Canada
c. Israel
d. Japan
Answer: d. Japan
Explanation:
Japan has its own satellite navigation system called the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS). It is a regional satellite navigation system that focuses on providing enhanced GPS coverage in Asia-Oceania, with Japan as its primary service area. The system is designed to provide high-precision positioning services in areas where GPS signals are often obstructed, such as urban canyons or mountainous regions. The QZSS operates by using satellites in highly elliptical, geosynchronous orbits that appear to hang over Japan for extended periods, thus ensuring constant coverage.
Australia, Canada, and Israel do not have their own global satellite navigation systems. They rely on other global systems like the United States’ GPS, Russia’s GLONASS, the European Union’s Galileo, or China’s BeiDou for satellite-based navigation services.
Japan’s initiative in developing the QZSS underscores its commitment to enhancing and ensuring the reliability of its GPS capabilities, particularly in regions where coverage might be less than optimal due to geographical or infrastructural factors.
38.Consider the following statements:
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powred only in the initial phase of flight.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahmMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
This Statement is incorrect. Ballistic missiles are typically rocket-powered during their initial phase, helping them to reach a high altitude after which they follow a ballistic trajectory primarily under the influence of gravity towards their targets. They do not maintain jet propulsion throughout their flight. Cruise missiles, on the other hand, are powered by jet engines for the entirety of their flight at subsonic or supersonic speeds, allowing them to maintain a relatively low altitude and maneuver towards the target guided by advanced navigation systems.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fueled intercontinental ballistic missile.
This Statement is also incorrect. Agni-V is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM), not a cruise missile, with a range of over 5,000 kilometers and capable of carrying nuclear warheads. It is a surface-to-surface missile. BrahMos, in contrast, is a supersonic cruise missile, which is a joint venture between India and Russia. It is renowned for its speed (Mach2. 8-3.0), making it one of the fastest cruise missiles in the world. BrahMos is not an intercontinental ballistic missile.
Both descriptions of missile types in the given statements are fundamentally incorrect, making option (d) the accurate choice.
39.Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:
1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury
How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: c. All three
Explanation:
1. Gold mining activities, especially those that involve the use of mercury to extract gold from ore, are indeed a significant source of mercury pollution globally. Mercury is often used in artisanal and small-scale gold mining operations, leading to environmental contamination.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants are also a notable source of mercury pollution. When coal is burned for electricity generation, mercury present in coal is released into the atmosphere as airborne emissions. These emissions can eventually deposit into soil and water bodies, leading to environmental contamination.
3. It is true that there is no known safe level of exposure to mercury. Mercury is a highly toxic substance that can bioaccumulate in organisms and biomagnify through food chains, posing significant risks to human health and the environment even at low levels of exposure.
40. With reference to green hydrogen, Consider the following statements:
1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: c. All three
Explanation:
1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
This Statement is correct. Hydrogen, including green hydrogen, can indeed be used directly as a fuel in internal combustion engines. Although not as common as hydrogen fuel cells for vehicles, some internal combustion engines have been adapted to use hydrogen as a fuel. The combustion of hydrogen in these engines produces water as the only emission, making it an environmentally friendly option.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
This Statement is also correct. Green hydrogen can be blended with natural gas to create a hybrid fuel that can be used in existing natural gas pipelines and infrastructure for heating or power generation. This blending helps to reduce carbon emissions from traditional natural gas uses.
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
This Statement is correct. One of the most promising and widely recognized uses of green hydrogen is in fuel cells, particularly for vehicles. In hydrogen fuel cells, hydrogen is combined with oxygen in the air to produce electricity, which can then power electric motors in vehicles. The only byproducts are water and heat, making this an extremely clean technology.
Green hydrogen, produced through the electrolysis of water using renewable energy sources, thus offers multiple applications across different sectors, including transportation, power generation, and as a potential blend for natural gas. This versatility is why it is considered a key element in the transition to a sustainable energy future.
41. With reference to Home Guards, Consider the following statements:
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is tow serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of the internal security
3. To present infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wings Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: b. Only two
Explanation:
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
This Statement is incorrect. Home Guards are raised under various state legislations, not by a central act. The organization and functioning of Home Guards are primarily governed by the respective state governments under their specific Home Guards Acts and Rules. Each state has its own regulations regarding the recruitment, training, and duties of Home Guards.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security.
This Statement is correct. Home Guards serve as an auxiliary force to the police and are often called upon to help in maintaining internal security, manage traffic, crowd control during events and disasters, and other community services. They act as a reserve force, assisting the police in times of need such as public emergencies, natural disasters, and other disturbances.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wings Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
This Statement is correct. In states with international borders or coastal areas, specialized units of Home Guards known as Border Wings or Coastal Wings are often established to assist in controlling infiltration, smuggling, and other border-related security concerns. These units work in coordination with the Border Security Force (BSF) and the Coast Guard to enhance security along these sensitive areas.
Given that statements 2 and 3 are correct, only two statements are accurate about the Home Guards.
42. With reference to India, Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: b. Only two
Explanation:
Only Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect.
43. Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: d. None
Explanation:
1. North Kivu and Ituri are regions in the Democratic Republic of the Congo, known for conflict and violence, particularly involving armed groups and militias. They have been in the news due to internal conflicts and humanitarian crises, not due to the war between Armenia and Azerbaijan.
2. Nagorno-Karabakh is a region in the South Caucasus, internationally recognized as part of Azerbaijan but governed by ethnic Armenians. It was in the news due to the war between Armenia and Azerbaijan, not due to insurgency in Mozambique.
3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia are regions in Ukraine, which were not involved in a dispute between Israel and Lebanon. There has been no significant conflict or dispute between Israel and Lebanon involving these regions.
Therefore, none of the pairs are correctly matched.
44.Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement II: The โArab Peach Initiativeโ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
d. Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Explanation:
Statement I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States. This Statement is correct. Over the years, Israel has established diplomatic relations with several Arab states. Notably, it signed peace treaties with Egypt in 1979 and Jordan in 1994. More recently, under the Abraham Accords facilitated by the United States in 2020, Israel normalized relations with the United Arab Emirates, Bahrain, Sudan, and Morocco.
Statement II: The โArab Peach Initiativeโ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League. This Statement is incorrect. The Arab Peace Initiative, proposed by Saudi Arabia in 2002, offers normalized relations with Israel, but only under the condition that Israel fulfills certain requirements regarding the Palestinian territories, including a full withdrawal from the occupied territories and a just settlement of the Palestinian refugee problem. This initiative has not been signed by Israel and the Arab League as a collective body; it remains a proposal.
45.Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
Answer: b. Only two
Explanation:
1. Major Dhyan Chand: For Khel Ratna Award the Most spectacular And outstanding performance
This pair is correct. The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is India’s highest sporting honor given for the most spectacular and outstanding performance over a period of four years. It was formerly known simply as the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award.
2. Arjuna Award: For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
This pair is incorrect. The Arjuna Award is not for lifetime achievement; rather, it is awarded for consistently outstanding performance for four years. It recognizes outstanding achievement in national sports.
3. Dronacharya Award: To honor eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
This pair is correct. The Dronacharya Award is given to coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams, resulting in outstanding performance by those athletes at the international level.
4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar: To recognize the contribution made by sports persons even after retirement
This pair is incorrect. The Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar is awarded to corporate entities (both private and public), sports control boards, and NGOs for their contribution in promoting and developing sports in the country. It is not specifically for recognizing contributions made by sports persons after retirement.
Thus, only the descriptions for the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award and Dronacharya Award are correctly matched, making the answer two pairs correctly matched.
46.Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:
1. It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named Thambi.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the womenโs section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
Answer: b. Only two
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: It was indeed the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The 44th Chess Olympiad took place in Chennai, India, marking a significant milestone as it was the first time the event was hosted by India.
Statement I is correct: The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’. ‘Thambi’ means younger brother in Tamil, and this mascot was chosen to represent the local culture and hospitality.
Statement III is incorrect: The trophy for the winning team in the open section is named the Hamilton-Russell Cup, not the Vera Menchik Cup. The Hamilton-Russell Cup has been the trophy awarded to the winning team in the open section since it was first introduced.
Statement IV is incorrect: The trophy for the winning team in the womenโs section is actually the Vera Menchik Cup, not the Hamilton-Russell Cup. The Vera Menchik Cup is named after the first Women’s World Chess Champion.
47. Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: d. None
Explanation:
None of the pairs provided are correctly matched.
48. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reason common to all the them?
a. Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
b. Establishment of Chinese military bases
c. Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
d. Successful coups
Answer: d. Successful coups
Explanation:
In recent years, Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan have all experienced successful coups or political upheavals that have caught international attention. These coups have led to significant changes in government and governance structures in these countries.
49. Consider the following heavy industries:
1. Fertilizer plants
2. Oil refineries
3. Steel Plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Answer: c. All three
Explanation:
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing all three heavy industries mentioned: fertilizer plants, oil refineries, and steel plants. These industries are among the largest emitters of greenhouse gases and can benefit from the use of green hydrogen as a clean energy source for their operations.
50. Consider the following statements about G-20:
1. The G-20 group was originally established as platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.
2. Digital public infrastructure is one of Indiaโs G-20 priorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
1. The first Statement is correct. The G-20 group was indeed originally established as a platform for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. It later evolved to include meetings at the heads of state or government level.
2. The second Statement is also correct. Digital public infrastructure is indeed one of India’s priorities within the G-20 framework. India has been advocating for digital inclusion and leveraging digital technologies for sustainable development within the G-20 discussions.