Topic’s Weightage
| Subjects | No. of questions |
| Ancient Indian History | 8 |
| Medieval Indian History | 4 |
| 1757-1947 | 4 |
| Economics | 16 |
| Agriculture | 4 |
| Geography | 12 |
| Environment | 11 |
| International Relations | 10 |
| Polity | 13 |
| Science & Technology | 12 |
| Biology | 1 |
| Current Affairs | 5 |
| Total | 100 |
51. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into Reserved and Transferred subjects. Which of the following were treated as Reserved subjects?
1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
Answer: c. 1, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Under the Government of India Act 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, the functions of provincial governments in British India were divided into two lists: Reserved and Transferred subjects.
- Administration of Justice: This was a Reserved subject. Reserved subjects were those considered too sensitive or important to be handled by Indian ministers under the diarchy system introduced by the Act. These subjects remained under the control of the Governor and the British officials.
- Local Self-Government: This was a Transferred subject. Transferred subjects were administered by Indian ministers responsible to the legislative councils, where Indians had a greater role and could make decisions with some degree of autonomy.
- Land Revenue: This was a Reserved subject. Matters of land revenue were considered critical for the financial stability of the government and thus were kept under British control, administered by officials appointed by the Governor.
- Police: This was also a Reserved subject. The police force was crucial for maintaining law and order, a priority that the British government did not entrust to Indian ministers at the time.
Thus, the Administration of Justice, Land Revenue, and Police (1, 3, and 4) were Reserved subjects under the Government of India Act 1919, making option c. the correct choice. Local Self-Government was a Transferred subject, managed by Indian ministers, reflecting the partial transfer of control to Indian hands as part of the reforms.
52. In medieval India, the term Fanam referred to:
a. Clothing
b. Coins
c. Ornaments
d. Weapons
Answer: b. Coins
Explanation:
In medieval India, the term Fanam referred to a unit of currency or a type of coin.
Fanam coins were used in various regions of medieval India, including parts of South India, particularly during the time of various dynasties and rulers.
These coins were typically made of precious metals such as gold or silver and were used for trade and commerce.
The term Fanam has historical significance in the context of Indian numismatics, indicating a specific denomination or type of coin used in monetary transactions during medieval times.
53. Consider the following freedom fighters:
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose
Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 3 only
Answer: d. 3 only
54. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The members of the Constituent Assembly were to be elected by the Provincial Assemblies, not nominated. The representatives of the Princely States were to be nominated separately by the rulers of those states, not by the Provincial Assemblies.
Statement 2 is correct. The Cripps Mission proposed that any province not willing to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
55. With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:
1. Nettipakarana
2. Parishishtaparvan
3. Avadanashataka
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana
Which of the above are Jaina texts?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b. 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
Nettipakarana and Avadanashataka are not Jaina texts; they belong to Buddhist literature.
Parishishtaparvan and Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana are Jaina texts. Parishishtaparvan is a supplementary section of the Mahabharata and contains information on Jainism, while Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana is one of the canonical texts of the Digambara Jain tradition.
56. With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs:
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a. None of the pairs
b. Only one pair
c. Only two pairs
d. All three pairs
Answer: c. Only two pairs
Explanation:
Aryadeva is correctly matched as a Jaina scholar.
Dignaga is correctly matched as a Buddhist scholar.
Nathamuni, however, is not a Vaishnava scholar; he is renowned as a Hindu scholar, particularly in the context of the Vaishnavism tradition in South India.
57. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
1. The first Mongol Invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughla temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 3 only
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
1. The first Mongol Invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
This statement is incorrect. The first Mongol invasion of India occurred during the reign of Iltutmish, the Sultan of Delhi from the Delhi Sultanate, who ruled much before Jalal-ud-din Khalji. Iltutmish faced the Mongol threat under the leadership of Genghis Khan around 1221 AD.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
This statement is correct. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, several Mongol invasions occurred. Notably, in 1303 AD, the Mongols under the leadership of utlugh Khwaja besieged Delhi. Ala-ud-din managed to defend the city successfully after a lengthy siege.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughla temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.
This statement is incorrect. Muhammad-bin-Tughla faced numerous challenges during his reign, including revolts and the loss of territory, but there is no record of him losing portions of the north-west of his kingdom to the Mongols specifically. His reign was troubled more by internal strife and rebellion than by Mongol invasions.
58. With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as Kulah-Daran?
a. Arab merchants
b. alandars
c. Persian calligraphists
d. Sayyids
Answer: d. Sayyids
59. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuuerue captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast of India, particularly in places like Pulicat and Masulipatnam, but these were not established on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers. The Dutch primarily negotiated with local authorities or established their presence through conuest, rather than receiving land grants.
Statement 2 is correct. Alfonso de Albuuerue captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate in 1510.
Statement 3 is also correct. The English East India Company did establish a factory at Madras (modern-day Chennai) on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire in 1639.
60. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?
1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, a person could indeed become a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
Statement 2 is also correct. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free, as per the Arthashastra.
Statement 3 is correct as well. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son, according to Kautilya’s Arthashastra.
61. Consider the following statements:
1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Tight monetary policy by the US Federal Reserve, which typically involves raising interest rates, can indeed lead to capital flight as investors may seek higher returns elsewhere due to increased borrowing costs in the US.
Statement 2 is also correct. Capital flight can increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) because as capital leaves the country, the demand for the domestic currency decreases, potentially leading to depreciation and higher borrowing costs for firms with ECBs.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Devaluation of the domestic currency actually increases the currency risk associated with ECBs because it makes repayment of ECBs more expensive in terms of the domestic currency. It doesn’t decrease the currency risk; rather, it exacerbates it.
62. Consider the following States:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura
How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?
a. Only one State
b. Only two States
c. Only three States
d. All four States
Answer: c. Only three States
63. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
This statement is incorrect. Credit rating agencies in India are primarily regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). SEBI oversees and provides guidelines for the functioning of these agencies to ensure transparency and protect investor interests.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
This statement is correct. ICRA Limited (formerly Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Limited. is indeed a public limited company. It provides credit ratings and research for corporate and financial sectors in India.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.
This statement is also correct. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency established in 2007 and is recognized by SEBI. It provides ratings that help in assessing the credit risk associated with various financial instruments.
64. With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB), which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Chairman of the Banks Board Bureau (BBB. is not the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The BBB is chaired by a person selected by the Government of India, typically a retired bureaucrat or a prominent individual from the banking sector.
Statement 2 is correct. The Banks Board Bureau (BBB. recommends candidates for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks (PSBs) to the Government of India.
Statement 3 is also correct. The BBB assists Public Sector Banks (PSBs) in developing strategies and capital raising plans to improve their performance and strengthen their financial position.
65. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:
1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for euity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to euity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
66. Consider the following:
1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
2. Missile Technology Control Regime
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
India is a member of which of the above?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB): India is a founding member of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank, which was established in 2016. AIIB is an international financial institution aimed at supporting the building of infrastructure in the Asia-Pacific region.
2. Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR): India joined the Missile Technology Control Regime in June 2016. The MTCR is a multilateral export control regime that seeks to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km.
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO): India became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation in 2017. The SCO is a Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance, and the membership of India marks its commitment to deeper defense and economic collaboration in the region.
67. Consider the following statements:
1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party-political system.
3. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
4. For a long time, Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 2 and 4
b. 3 and 5
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 2
Answer: c. 1, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Vietnam has indeed been one of the fastest-growing economies in the world in recent years, with robust GDP growth rates.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Vietnam operates under a single-party political system, with the Communist Party of Vietnam being the dominant political force.
Statement 3 is correct. Vietnam’s economic growth is significantly linked to its integration with global supply chains and its focus on exports, particularly in manufacturing sectors like electronics, textiles, and footwear.
Statement 4 is correct. Vietnam’s low labor costs and relatively stable exchange rates have been attractive factors for global manufacturers seeking to establish production bases in the country.
Statement 5 is incorrect. While Vietnam’s e-service sector has been growing rapidly, it does not hold the title of the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.
68. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?
a. Department of Consumer Affairs
b. Expenditure Management Commission
c. Financial Stability and Development Council
d. Reserve Bank of India
Answer: d. Reserve Bank of India
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is responsible for maintaining price stability in India by controlling inflation. It formulates and implements monetary policy measures to regulate the supply of money and credit in the economy, which in turn influences inflationary pressures. The RBI uses tools such as interest rates, open market operations, reserve requirements, and other regulatory measures to achieve its monetary policy objectives, including controlling inflation.
69. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:
1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are uniue cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at euivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) enable the digital representation of uniue assets, which can include digital artwork, collectibles, virtual real estate, and more. However, they typically represent digital assets, not physical ones.
Statement 2 is also correct. NFTs are uniue cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain, which ensures their scarcity and authenticity.
Statement 3 is incorrect. NFTs are not designed to be traded or exchanged at euivalency like fungible tokens (such as cryptocurrencies). Each NFT is uniue and cannot be exchanged on a one-to-one basis with another NFT, which means they are not suitable as a medium of commercial transactions in the same way as fungible tokens.
70. Consider the following pairs:
How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?
a. Only one pair
b. Only two pairs
c. Only three pairs
d. All four pairs
Answer: c. Only three pairs
Explanation:
Gandhi Sagar reservoir is correctly matched with Madhya Pradesh.
Indira Sagar reservoir is correctly matched with Madhya Pradesh, not Andhra Pradesh.
Maithon reservoir is correctly matched with Jharkhand, not Chhattisgarh.
Ghataprabha reservoir is not in Telangana; it is located in Karnataka.
71. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, entrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?
a. Central Statistics Office
b. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
c. Labour Bureau
d. National Technical Manpower Information System
Answer: c. Labour Bureau
Explanation:
The Labour Bureau in India is responsible for compiling information on industrial disputes, closures, entrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers. It collects and analyzes data related to labor and employment trends in the country, including information on industrial disputes and labor-related issues.
72. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?
1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acuisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 4
Answer: a. 1, 2 and 3
73. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
a. This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
b. This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
c. This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
d. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
Answer: a. This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
Explanation:
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in certain states. When a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule, it provides special protections and safeguards for the tribal communities residing in those areas.
One of the conseuences of bringing an area under the Fifth Schedule is that it prevents the transfer of land belonging to tribal people to non-tribal people without the approval of the competent authority. This protection aims to safeguard the land rights and interests of tribal communities and prevent their exploitation by non-tribal individuals or entities.
74. Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The India Sanitation Coalition (ISC. is indeed a platform to promote sustainable sanitation, but it is not funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization (WHO). Instead, it is a collaboration of various stakeholders including private sector organizations, non-governmental organizations (NGOs), academic institutions, and others working towards achieving sustainable sanitation goals in India.
Statement 2 is correct. The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA. is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India. It provides innovative solutions, conducts research, and offers technical assistance to address the challenges of urbanization in India.
75. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
a. Central Water Commission
b. Central Ground Water Board
c. Central Ground Water Authority
d. National Water Development Agency
Answer: c. Central Ground Water Authority
Explanation: The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA. has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Its primary responsibility is to regulate and control groundwater extraction and management in India to ensure sustainable use of groundwater resources and prevent their depletion.
76. With reference to the United Nations Credentials Committee, consider the following statements:
1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 3 only
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
Answer: a. 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The United Nations Credentials Committee is not set up by the UN Security Council; instead, it is established by the United Nations General Assembly.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The United Nations Credentials Committee does not have fixed meeting schedules in March, June, and September every year.
Statement 3 is correct. The primary responsibility of the United Nations Credentials Committee is to assess the credentials of all UN member states and submit a report to the General Assembly for approval before the commencement of each session.
77. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?
a. It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
b. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
c. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
d. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.
Answer: a. It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
Explanation: The Polar Code is an international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters. It was developed by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) to address the uniue risks and challenges faced by ships navigating through polar regions, including extreme weather conditions, ice hazards, and environmental concerns. The Polar Code sets out specific requirements and regulations for ships operating in these challenging environments to ensure the safety of navigation and to minimize the risks of accidents or pollution incidents.
78. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:
1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headuarters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
This statement is correct. The United Nations General Assembly can grant observer status to non-member states, which allows them to participate in the work of the United Nations but without voting rights. For instance, the Holy See and Palestine have observer status.
2. Inter-governmental organizations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
This statement is also correct. Various inter-governmental organizations have been granted observer status at the UN General Assembly, which enables them to participate in sessions and work but not vote. Examples include entities like the European Union, the African Union, and ASEAN.
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headuarters.
This statement is correct. Permanent observers are allowed to maintain missions at the United Nations Headuarters, similar to member states, though they do not have voting rights. This facilitates their engagement and participation in ongoing discussions and sessions.
79. With reference to the Tea Board in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
Answer: d. 1 and 4
Explanation:
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
This statement is correct. The Tea Board of India is a statutory body established under the Tea Act of 1953. It is responsible for the promotion and development of the tea industry in India.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
This statement is incorrect. The Tea Board is actually under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. It functions primarily to promote the export of tea from India and to regulate and develop the domestic tea market.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
This statement is incorrect. The head office of the Tea Board is located in Kolkata, West Bengal, which is a major center for the tea trade in India.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
This statement is correct. The Tea Board maintains several overseas offices to promote Indian tea globally, including in Dubai and Moscow, which help in market development and promotional activities in those regions.
80. Which one of the following best describes the term greenwashing?
a. Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
b. Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
c. Ignoring the disastrous ecological conseuences while undertaking infrastructure development
d. Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme
Answer: a. Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
Explanation: Greenwashing refers to the practice of conveying a false or misleading impression that a company’s products or activities are environmentally friendly or sustainable when they are not. This can involve deceptive marketing tactics, exaggerated claims of environmental benefits, or the use of misleading labels or certifications to create a positive image of the company’s environmental responsibility.
81. Consider the following statements:
1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
82. Consider the following statements:
1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 only
Answer: c. 2 and 3
Explanation:
1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
This statement is incorrect. Bidibidi is actually one of the world’s largest refugee settlements, but it is located in Uganda, not Kenya. It was established to house people fleeing the civil war in South Sudan.
2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
This statement is correct. Bidibidi was established specifically to accommodate the influx of refugees from the South Sudan civil war, making it one of the primary sanctuaries for those displaced by the conflict.
3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.
This statement is correct. The Dadaab refugee complex, located in Kenya, has historically been home to a large number of Somali refugees who fled the ongoing civil war and instability in Somalia.
The confusion around the location of Bidibidi is common, but verifying the details shows that it is indeed in Uganda. Dadaab, on the other hand, is well-documented as a major refugee settlement in Kenya, primarily for Somalis.
83. Consider the following countries:
1. Armenia
2. Azerbaijan
3. Croatia
4. Romania
5. Uzbekistan
Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 5
d. 3, 4 and 5
Answer: c. 2 and 5
Explanation:
Armenia (Option 1) and Croatia (Option 3) are not members of the Organization of Turkic States.
Azerbaijan (Option 2) and Uzbekistan (Option 5) are both members of the Organization of Turkic States.
Romania (Option 4) is not a member of the Organization of Turkic States.
84. Consider the following statements:
1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.
3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 3 only
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
This statement was correct until recently. Gujarat had the title of hosting the largest solar park in India, namely the Bhadla Solar Park located in Rajasthan. As of now, Rajasthan holds the record for the largest single-site solar park, specifically the Bhadla Solar Park, which has a capacity exceeding 2,245 MW. Gujarat does have significant solar installations but does not currently hold the record for the largest single solar park.
2. Kerala has a fully solar-powered International Airport.
This statement is correct. Cochin International Airport in Kerala is the world’s first fully solar-powered airport. The entire operations of the airport are powered by solar energy, which is generated from photovoltaic panels installed on the site. This achievement has been internationally recognized and represents a significant milestone in sustainable energy development.
3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.
This statement is incorrect. The largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India is located on the reservoir of the Ramagundam Thermal Power Plant in Telangana. It is significantly larger than any such installation in Goa. The project in Telangana is part of India’s initiative to increase its renewable energy sources.
Therefore, the only correct statement among those provided is that Kerala has a fully solar-powered international airport.
85. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:
1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea in measure.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. According to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), a coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
Statement 2 is correct. UNCLOS grants ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea, subject to certain conditions and limitations.
Statement 3 is correct. The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is indeed established up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured, according to UNCLOS.
86. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?
a. It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
b. China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
c. A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
d. Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.
Answer: b. China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
Explanation: The Senkaku Islands, also known as the Diaoyu Islands in China, are a group of uninhabited islands located in the East China Sea. The main issue surrounding these islands is the territorial dispute between China and Japan. Both countries claim sovereignty over the islands, which has led to tensions and occasional maritime confrontations in the region.
87. Consider the following pairs:
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a. Only one pair
b. Only two pairs
c. Only three pairs
d. All four pairs
Answer: c. Only three pairs
88. Consider the following pairs:
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a. Only one pair
b. Only two pairs
c. Only three pairs
d. All four pairs
Answer: b. Only two pairs
Explanation:
Anatolia: This pair is correctly matched. Anatolia is often mentioned in the news in reference to Turkey, as it is the historical and geographical region comprising the majority of Turkey’s territory.
Amhara: This pair is correctly matched. Amhara is often mentioned in the news in reference to Ethiopia, as it is one of the nine ethnic divisions of Ethiopia and has been involved in various political and ethnic conflicts.
Cabo Delgado: This pair is incorrect. Cabo Delgado is a region in Mozambiue, not Spain. It has been in the news due to the insurgency by Islamist militants.
Catalonia: This pair is incorrect. Catalonia is a region in Spain, not Italy. It has been in the news due to its independence movement and political tensions with the Spanish government.
89. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for eual protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 3 only
Answer: a. 1 and 2
90. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?
a. Ant
b. Cockroach
c. Crab
d. Spider
Answer: a. Ant
Explanation: Certain species of ants, known as fungus-farming ants, are well known as cultivators of fungi. These ants cultivate fungus in specialized structures within their nests, which they then use as a food source. The ants create ideal conditions for fungal growth by managing the environment within their nests, such as maintaining humidity and temperature levels. They also protect their fungal gardens from pests and pathogens.
91. Consider the following pairs:
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a. Only one pair
b. Only two pairs
c. Only three pairs
d. All four pairs
Answer: b. Only two pairs
92. Consider the following pairs:
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a. Only one pair
b. Only two pairs
c. Only three pairs
d. All four pairs
Answer: b. Only two pairs
Explanation:
1. Nannuka: Chandela.
This pair is correct. Nannuka is considered one of the early or foundational figures in the history of the Chandela dynasty, which ruled in the central part of India, particularly around the regions that include present-day Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
2. Jayashakti: Paramara.
This pair is incorrect. Jayashakti is actually associated with the Vallabhi dynasty, not the Paramara dynasty. The Paramara dynasty, primarily known for their rule in the region of Malwa in central India, does not list Jayashakti among their rulers.
3. Nagabhata II: Gurajara-Pratihara.
This pair is correct. Nagabhata II was a prominent king of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty, known for defending his kingdom against the Arab invasions and for the expansion of his empire across northern India during the early medieval period.
4. Bhoja: Rashtrakuta.
This pair is incorrect. Bhoja is most famously associated with the Paramara dynasty of Malwa, where he is renowned for his patronage of the arts, literature, and his contributions to building architectural marvels. He is not linked with the Rashtrakutas, who were a major South Indian dynasty centered around the modern state of Karnataka.
93. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?
a. Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
b. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
c. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.
d. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.
Answer: b. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
Explanation: Sangam literature, composed in ancient South India, does contain references to the social classification of Varna. The Sangam period, which lasted from around 300 BCE to 300 CE, witnessed the emergence of early Tamil literature, known as Sangam literature. This body of literature provides insights into the society, culture, and beliefs of ancient South India. While Sangam poems do not extensively discuss material culture or explicitly refer to warrior ethic or magical forces as irrational, they do reflect the social structures of the time, including the knowledge of the Varna system.
94. Yogavasistha was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:
a. Akbar
b. Humayun
c. Shahjahan
d. Aurangzeb
Answer: a. Akbar
Explanation:
The Yogavasistha was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of Akbar, the Mughal emperor known for his patronage of literature, art, and culture. Akbar’s era saw significant cultural exchanges and translations of various works into Persian, the official language of the Mughal court. Nizamuddin Panipati was a prominent scholar and translator during Akbar’s reign, and his translation of the Yogavasistha into Persian contributed to the dissemination of Indian philosophical and literary works in the Persian-speaking world.
95. The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?
a. The best means of salvation was devotion.
b. Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
c. Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
d. Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.
Answer: a. The best means of salvation was devotion.
Explanation: Ramanuja, a prominent Hindu philosopher and theologian, advocated the path of devotion(bhakti) as the means to attain salvation. He emphasized the importance of unwavering devotion to the supreme deity, Vishnu, as the primary path to liberation(moksha). Ramanuja’s teachings emphasized the significance of bhakti, surrender, and loving devotion to God as the most effective means for spiritual emancipation and union with the divine.
96. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?
1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
This statement is correct. Somnath Temple, located in Gujarat, India, is indeed one of the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines which are the most sacred abodes of Shiva. It holds a very significant position in Hindu tradition and mythology.
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
This statement is also correct. The Persian scholar Al-Biruni, who visited India in the early 11th century, provided one of the earliest and most detailed descriptions of the Somnath Temple in his work, documenting its wealth, religious significance, and the destruction it underwent during the invasions.
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.
This statement is incorrect. The Pran Pratishtha (consecration) of the reconstructed Somnath Temple was actually done by the first President of India, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, in 1951, not by President S. Radhakrishnan. The temple had been destroyed and rebuilt several times in its history, and the ceremony by President Prasad marked the end of the latest reconstruction effort that began post-independence.
Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct regarding Somnath Temple, making option a. the right answer.
97. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
a. They protect the body from environmental allergens.
b. They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
c. They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
d. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
Answer: d. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
Explanation: B cells and T cells are two types of white blood cells that are vital components of the immune system in the human body. They play crucial roles in protecting the body from diseases caused by pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. B cells are responsible for producing antibodies, which are proteins that specifically target and neutralize pathogens. T cells, on the other hand, directly attack and destroy infected cells and regulate immune responses.
98. Consider the following statements:
1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in manufacture of some cosmetics
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter environment are unsafe for humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 3
Answer: d. 2 and 3
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Nanoparticles do exist naturally in the environment, such as in volcanic ash, forest fires, and ocean spray.
- Statement 2 is correct. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are indeed used in the manufacture of cosmetics. These nanoparticles may have unique properties that make them suitable for various cosmetic applications.
- Statement 3 is correct. Some nanoparticles used in commercial products, when released into the environment, may pose risks to human health and the environment. The safety of nanoparticles depends on various factors, including their composition, size, surface properties, and exposure levels.
99. Consider the following statements:
DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:
1. assess the age of a plant or animal.
2. distinguish among species that look alike.
3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 3
Answer: d. 2 and 3
Explanation:
1. Statement 1 is incorrect. DNA barcoding is not typically used to assess the age of a plant or animal. Instead, it is primarily used for species identification.
2. Statement 2 is correct. DNA barcoding is an effective tool for distinguishing among species that may look alike morphologically but have distinct genetic differences. By analyzing specific DNA seuences, researchers can identify and differentiate between closely related species.
3. Statement 3 is also correct. DNA barcoding can be used to identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods. By analyzing DNA from food products, manufacturers can verify the authenticity of ingredients and detect any adulteration or contamination.
100. Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 4 only
d. 1, 3 and 4
Answer: b. 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
- Carbon monoxide (CO) is not a component of acid rain. It is a colorless, odorless gas that primarily contributes to air pollution and can have adverse effects on human health.
- Nitrogen oxide (NOx) emissions, primarily from combustion processes such as those in vehicles and power plants, contribute to acid rain formation. NOx reacts with atmospheric water to form nitric acid (HNO3), which can then be deposited as acid rain.
- Ozone (O3) is not directly involved in acid rain formation. It is a beneficial component of the Earth’s atmosphere when present in the stratosphere, but ground-level ozone can be harmful to human health and the environment.
- Sulphur dioxide (SO2) emissions, mainly from industrial processes and burning of fossil fuels, are a significant contributor to acid rain formation. SO2 reacts with atmospheric water to form sulphuric acid (H2SO4), which is a major component of acid rain.