Topic’s Weightage
| Subjects | No. of questions |
| Ancient Indian History | 8 |
| Medieval Indian History | 3 |
| 1757-1947 | 7 |
| Economics | 12 |
| Agriculture | 3 |
| Geography | 12 |
| Environment | 15 |
| International Relations | 2 |
| Polity | 19 |
| Science & Technology | 8 |
| Biology | 3 |
| Current Affairs | 8 |
| Total | 100 |
1. Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because
a. it is dipolar in nature
b. it is a good conductor of heat
c. it has high value of specific heat
d. it is an oxide of hydrogen
Answer: a. it is dipolar in nature
Explanation: Water is able to dissolve more substances than any other liquid primarily because of its unique dipolar nature. Water molecules consist of one oxygen atom and two hydrogen atoms, arranged in a bent shape. Due to differences in electronegativity between oxygen and hydrogen, water molecules have a slightly negative charge (ฮด-) near the oxygen atom and a slightly positive charge (ฮด+) near the hydrogen atoms. This polarity allows water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with other polar molecules or ions, facilitating their dissolution in water.
2. With reference to street-lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps?
1. Sodium Lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps.
2. As street-lights, sodium lamps have longer life span than LED lamps.
3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street-lighting.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Sodium Lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps: Sodium lamps emit light in almost all directions, approximately 360 degrees. In contrast, LED lamps emit light directionally, which means they are designed to direct light where it is needed, making them more efficient in street-lighting applications.
- As street-lights, sodium lamps have longer lifespan than LED lamps: This statement is incorrect. LED lamps generally have a longer lifespan compared to sodium lamps. LED lamps can last significantly longer, sometimes up to 2-4 times longer, than traditional sodium lamps. This longer lifespan is advantageous in terms of maintenance costs and the frequency of replacement.
- The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant color advantages in street-lighting: This statement is correct. Sodium lamps emit light primarily in a narrow spectrum, which appears as a monochromatic yellow-orange light. In contrast, LED lamps can emit light across a wider spectrum, allowing for greater flexibility in color temperature and the ability to produce white light with various color temperatures. This versatility can enhance visibility and improve the quality of street-lighting.
Therefore, the correct answer is option c. 1 and 3 only.
3. The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of
a. genes introduced in the genetically modified plants
b. development of India’s own satellite navigation system
c. radio collars for wildlife tracking
d. spread of viral diseases
Answer: d. spread of viral diseases
Explanation:
ACE2 (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme 2) is a protein found on the surface of many cell types in the human body, including cells in the lungs, heart, kidneys, and intestines. It serves as the receptor for the spike protein of SARS-CoV-2, the virus responsible for COVID-19. The interaction between the spike protein and ACE2 facilitates the entry of the virus into human cells, which is a critical step in the infection process.
Therefore, the term ACE2 is primarily discussed in the context of understanding how SARS-CoV-2 infects human cells and the development of strategies to prevent or treat COVID-19 and other viral diseases.
4. Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kind of plastic?
a. Low-density polyethylene
b. Polycarbonate
c. Polyethylene telephthalate
d. Polyvinyl chloride
Answer: b. Polycarbonate
Explanation:
Bisphenol A (BPA) is indeed a cause of concern due to its potential health effects. It is a key component in the manufacture of polycarbonate plastic. Polycarbonate is a versatile, durable, and transparent plastic used in a wide range of products, including food and beverage containers, eyeglass lenses, medical devices, and electronic equipment.
However, there are concerns about the leaching of BPA from polycarbonate products, especially when they come into contact with food or beverages, which can potentially lead to human exposure to BPA.
Source: National Institute of Environmental Health Sciences(NIEHS).
5. Triclosan’, considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most lilely present in which of the following?
a. Food preservatives
b. Fruit-ripening substances
c. Reused plastic containers
d. Toiletries
Answer: d. Toiletries
Explanation:
Triclosan is commonly found in toiletries such as antibacterial soaps, toothpaste, deodorants, and hand sanitizers. It is added to these products for its antimicrobial properties. However, concerns have been raised about the potential health risks associated with long-term exposure to triclosan, including antibiotic resistance and disruption of hormone regulation.
Triclosan is not typically used as a food preservative, fruit-ripening substance, or a component of reused plastic containers. Its presence in toiletries is more common and is a cause for concern due to its potential harmful effects.
6. Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?
a. Distances among stellar bodies do not change
b. Gravity of stellar bodies does not change
c. Light always travels in straight line
d. Speed of light is always same.
Answer: d. Speed of light is always same.
Explanation:
A light-year is defined as the distance that light travels in one year in a vacuum, and it is used as a unit of astronomical distance because the speed of light in a vacuum is constant. The speed of light in a vacuum is approximately 299,792 kilometers per second (about 186,282 miles per second), and it does not change under normal conditions.
Therefore, astronomical distances are measured in light-years because the speed of light remains constant, providing a consistent and reliable means of measuring vast distances in the universe.
7. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a. 1 only
8. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Ministerโs charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
- N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it: This statement is correct. The N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee, also known as the Committee on Public Administration (1951), recommended the appointment of a minister and a secretary specifically dedicated to administrative reforms to ensure focused attention on this important aspect of governance.
- In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Ministerโs charge: This statement is also correct. The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) was established in 1969-70 based on the recommendations of the Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC), 1966. The ARC recommended the creation of a separate department to oversee personnel matters and improve the efficiency of the civil services. The DoPT was initially placed under the charge of the Prime Minister to emphasize its importance in the governance structure.
Therefore, both statements are correct as they highlight significant recommendations and actions related to administrative reforms in the Union Government.
9. โRight to Privacyโ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India?
a. Article 15
b. Article 19
c. Article 21
d. Article 29
Answer: c. Article 21
Explanation:
The right to privacy in India is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. Over the years, the Supreme Court of India has interpreted Article 21 expansively to include the right to privacy as an integral part of the right to life and personal liberty.
In the landmark judgment of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously affirmed that the right to privacy is a fundamental right protected under Article 21 of the Constitution. The court recognized that privacy is a cherished constitutional value and essential for the exercise of other fundamental rights.
Therefore, Article 21 of the Constitution of India safeguards the right to privacy.
10. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
1. Restriction on Contesting from Multiple Constituencies: According to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, as amended in 1996, there is a restriction on candidates contesting from more than two constituencies in a Lok Sabha election. Section 33(7) of the Act specifically limits the number of constituencies from which a person can contest Lok Sabha elections to two. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
2. Shri Devi Lal in 1991 Lok Sabha Election: Shri Devi Lal did contest the 1991 Lok Sabha elections from three constituenciesโSikar, Rohtak, and Hisar. However, it is crucial to note that the restriction on contesting from more than two constituencies was introduced in 1996, after the 1991 elections. Thus, statement 2 is correct as per the context of the time.
3. Cost of By-Elections: There is no rule or law that mandates a candidate’s party to bear the cost of by-elections if a candidate vacates seats due to winning in multiple constituencies. The cost of conducting by-elections is generally borne by the Election Commission of India, not the candidate’s political party. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.
11. The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions?
1. Burrowing animals and termites
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5.Soil properties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 4 and 5
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 5
Answer: c. 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
1. Burrowing animals and termites: While burrowing animals and termites may play a role in modifying the vegetation structure of savannahs, they are not typically significant factors in keeping forest development in check. In fact, their activities may contribute to soil aeration and nutrient cycling, which can sometimes promote vegetation growth rather than inhibit it.
2. Fire: Fire is a crucial factor in regulating the vegetation structure of savannahs. Regular burning of grasslands prevents the encroachment of trees and shrubs, maintaining the open grassland with scattered trees characteristic of savannah ecosystems.
3. Grazing herbivores: Grazing herbivores such as antelopes, zebras, and elephants play a vital role in shaping the vegetation structure of savannahs. Their grazing activities can limit the growth of woody vegetation by consuming young tree seedlings and keeping the grass layer well-maintained.
4. Seasonal rainfall: Seasonal rainfall patterns are essential in determining the distribution and extent of savannah ecosystems. In regions where rainfall is seasonal and sporadic, tree growth may be limited, and grasslands dominate the landscape.
5. Soil properties: Soil properties, such as texture, drainage, and nutrient content, can influence vegetation development in savannahs. However, while soil properties can affect the type and distribution of vegetation, they are not as significant as factors like fire, grazing, and rainfall in keeping forest development in check in savannah ecosystems.
Therefore, the correct options are 2, 3, and 4.
12. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
1. Water in Rivers and Lakes vs Groundwater: The amount of water in rivers and lakes is actually much less than the amount of groundwater. Groundwater constitutes about 30.1% of the world’s freshwater, whereas rivers and lakes together hold only a small fraction (about 0.3% for lakes and even less for rivers) of the earth’s total freshwater. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
2. Water in Polar Ice Caps and Glaciers vs Groundwater: The amount of water stored in polar ice caps and glaciers is indeed more than the amount of groundwater. Ice caps and glaciers hold about 68.7% of the world’s freshwater, making it the largest reservoir of freshwater on the planet, surpassing the amount stored as groundwater. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
13. Consider the following statements:
1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa
5.Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1, 2, 4 and 5
b. 3, 4 and 5
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 5
Answer: b. 3, 4 and 5
Explanation:
1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree: This statement is incorrect. While moringa is indeed a tree, it is not a leguminous tree. Moringa is a flowering plant in the family Moringaceae, and it is not classified as a legume. Leguminous trees typically belong to the Fabaceae family.
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia: This statement is incorrect. The tamarind tree (Tamarindus indica) is native to tropical Africa but is widely cultivated and naturalized throughout tropical regions, including South Asia.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce: This statement is correct. Tamarind is often collected as minor forest produce in India, particularly in forested areas where the tree grows naturally or is cultivated.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa: This statement is correct. India is a major exporter of tamarind and seeds of moringa. Both products are widely used in various industries, including food, pharmaceuticals, and cosmetics.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels: This statement is correct. Both moringa seeds and tamarind seeds contain oil that can be extracted and used as feedstock for the production of biofuels, such as biodiesel.
Therefore, the correct statements are 3, 4, and 5.
14. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of
a. Brown forest soil
b. Fissure volcanic rock
c. Granite and schist
d. Shale and limestone
Answer: b. Fissure volcanic rock
Explanation:
Black cotton soil, also known as Regur soil, is primarily found in the Deccan Trap region of India. This type of soil is formed from the weathering of volcanic rocks, particularly basalt, which originates from fissure eruptions. The weathering of these rocks leads to the formation of fine-grained black soils which are rich in montmorillonitic and other clay minerals. These soils have high moisture retention capabilities and swell significantly when wet, which is characteristic of the black cotton soil. They are not formed from the weathering of brown forest soil, granite and schist, or shale and limestone.
15. With reference to recent developments regarding โRecombinant Vector Vaccinesโ, consider the following statements:
1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
16. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements:
1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilisation of egg.
2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
17. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of
a. Clonal propagation of crop plants
b. Developing genetically modified crop plants
c. Production of plant growth substances
d. Production of bio-fertilisers
Answer: b. Developing genetically modified crop plants
Explanation:
Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are associated with the development of genetically modified (GM) crop plants, specifically cotton. These technologies involve the insertion of genes from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) into the cotton genome. The inserted genes produce proteins toxic to certain insect pests, particularly the larvae of cotton bollworms. This genetic modification confers resistance to these insect pests, reducing the need for chemical insecticides and enhancing crop yields.
Bollgard I was the first generation of Bt cotton technology, while Bollgard II represented an advancement with additional genes for enhanced insect resistance.
Source: International Service for the Acquisition of Agri-biotech Applications
18. In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the following?
1. Area of the hole in the lid
2. Temperature of the flame
3. Weight of the lid
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
19. Consider the following:
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus
Which of the above can be cultured in artificial/synthetic medium?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
1. Bacteria: Bacteria can be cultured in artificial or synthetic media. These media provide the necessary nutrients and environmental conditions for bacterial growth. Bacterial culture media can be solid (e.g., agar plates) or liquid (e.g., broth), and they often contain specific nutrients tailored to the type of bacteria being cultured.
2. Fungi: Like bacteria, fungi can also be cultured in artificial or synthetic media. Fungi may require different types of nutrients compared to bacteria, often including sources of carbon and nitrogen, and the media may be adjusted to accommodate the specific growth requirements of different fungal species. Fungal cultures are used extensively in research as well as in industrial applications (like the production of antibiotics and enzymes).
3. Virus: Viruses, however, cannot be cultured in the same way as bacteria and fungi because they require host cells to replicate. Viruses need living cells to infect and use the cellular machinery of their host to multiply. Therefore, they cannot be grown on non-living artificial or synthetic media and instead are cultured in cell cultures or within living organisms.
Thus, only bacteria and fungi can be cultured in artificial or synthetic media, while viruses require living cells for propagation. This distinction is fundamental in microbiology and virology, reflecting the unique nature of viral replication.
20. Consider the following statements:
1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes.
2. Common cold is sometime caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes: This statement is incorrect. Adenoviruses actually have double-stranded DNA genomes, not single-stranded. Retroviruses, on the other hand, have single-stranded RNA genomes, not double-stranded DNA.
2. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus: This statement is correct. Adenoviruses are indeed one of the causative agents of the common cold, along with rhinoviruses and other respiratory viruses. HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, belongs to the retrovirus family.
Therefore, statement 2 is correct, while statement 1 is incorrect.
Source: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
21. Consider the following statements:
1. โRight to the Cityโ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.
2. โRight to the Cityโ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
3. โRight to the Cityโ means that the State cannot deny any public service of facility to the unauthorized colonies in the City.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 2
Explanation:
- ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard: This statement is correct. The concept of the ‘Right to the City’ has been recognized as an essential human right, emphasizing the rights of urban inhabitants to equitable access to urban resources and opportunities. The United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) plays a role in monitoring the commitments made by countries regarding this right.
- ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city: This statement is also correct. The ‘Right to the City’ concept advocates for the empowerment of urban inhabitants, allowing them to reclaim and participate in shaping the urban environment, including public spaces and decision-making processes related to urban development.
Statement 3, however, is incorrect. The ‘Right to the City’ does not necessarily mean that the state cannot deny public services or facilities to unauthorized colonies in the city. While the concept aims to promote equitable access to urban resources, it also emphasizes the need for sustainable and inclusive urban development, which may involve addressing informal settlements and unauthorized colonies through appropriate policies and interventions.
22. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
- Judicial Custody: Judicial custody means that the accused is held under the custody of the magistrate, but the statement that such an accused is locked up in a police station is incorrect. When a person is in judicial custody, they are usually kept in a jail and not in a police station. Judicial custody implies that the court has custody of the accused, and they are detained in a prison as per the directions of the court, not in police facilities. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
- Interrogation During Judicial Custody: The second statement is correct. During judicial custody, any interrogation by the police requires the permission of the court. This rule helps to safeguard the rights of the accused while ensuring that the investigation proceeds under judicial oversight. The court’s approval is necessary to prevent unauthorized or excessive interrogation, ensuring the legal rights of the detained person are respected. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
The information about judicial custody and the legal procedures surrounding the interrogation of suspects can typically be found in explanations of legal processes, law textbooks, or guidelines provided by legal institutions in India.
23. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
- When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right: This statement is incorrect. Parole is not an absolute right of the prisoner in India. Whether parole is granted or denied depends on various factors, including the nature of the offense, the prisoner’s conduct, and the discretion of the authorities. It is not automatically granted solely based on the prisoner making out a sufficient case.
- State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules: This statement is correct. Each state government in India has its own set of rules and guidelines governing the release of prisoners on parole. These rules outline the eligibility criteria, procedures, and conditions for granting parole to prisoners. State governments have the authority to enact and enforce these rules within their respective jurisdictions.
Therefore, statement 2 is correct, while statement 1 is incorrect.
Source: The Prisoners (Attendance in Courts) Act, 1955
24. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
a. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
b. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
c. Ministry of Rural Development
d. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Answer: d. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Explanation:
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs serves as the nodal agency at the national level to ensure the effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. This legislation aims to recognize and vest forest rights and occupation in forest land in forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs plays a central role in coordinating and overseeing the implementation of this act, working in collaboration with state governments, forest departments, and other relevant stakeholders to ensure the protection and empowerment of tribal communities and forest dwellers.
Source: Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India
25. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
a. Article 14
b. Article 28
c. Article 32
d. Article 44
Answer: a. Article 14
Explanation:
Article 14 of the Constitution of India guarantees the Right to Equality before the law and prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Legislation that confers unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power on the executive or administrative authority violates the principle of equality enshrined in Article 14. Such legislation allows for arbitrary and discriminatory application of the law, undermining the fundamental right to equality.
Source: Constitution of India
26. Which one of the following in Indian policy is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
a. The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
b. The union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
c. The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
d. The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
Answer: a. The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
Explanation:
The Independence of Judiciary: One of the essential features of a federal system is the existence of an independent judiciary to adjudicate disputes between the central government and the states, as well as among the states themselves. The independence of the judiciary ensures that the courts can make decisions without undue influence from the legislative or executive branches, which is crucial for maintaining the balance of power between different levels of government in a federal system. This independence helps uphold the constitution, preventing any one tier of government from overstepping its bounds.
The Union Legislature has Elected Representatives from Constituent Units: While this statement is true and reflects a feature of federalism, it is not as specifically indicative of federalism as the independence of the judiciary. Many non-federal systems can also have representation from various regions or groups without being federal in nature.
The Union Cabinet can have Elected Representatives from Regional Parties: Again, while the inclusion of regional parties in the Union Cabinet is common in a federal system, this is more a feature of a pluralistic society and does not distinctly define a federal system.
The Fundamental Rights are Enforceable by Courts of Law: The enforceability of fundamental rights by courts is indeed an important feature of a democratic system, including federal ones, but it is not unique to federal systems and thus does not specifically indicate federalism.
27. Which of the following best defines the term โStateโ?
a. A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.
b. A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.
c. A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government.
d. A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary.
Answer: a. A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.
Explanation:
Option a. : This option provides a comprehensive definition of a ‘State’ as understood in political science and international law. It emphasizes the key elements of a state: a defined territory, a permanent population, a government, and the capacity to enter into relations with other states, all operating independently of external control. This definition aligns closely with the traditional criteria laid out in the Montevideo Convention on the Rights and Duties of States (1933), which are widely accepted for statehood in international law.
Option b. : While this definition includes elements like political organization and authority, it focuses more on the functions of the state rather than its defining characteristics. The mention of protecting natural rights and safeguarding means of sustenance extends into the roles or objectives of a state, which, though important, are not definitive elements for the existence of a state.
Option c. : This definition brings in historical and cultural elements such as a very long time and own culture, tradition, which are not necessary conditions for defining a state. Many states may be relatively new or may have diverse cultures and still qualify as states under international law.
Option d. : Although this option correctly mentions a definite territory and organized central authority, it specifically mentions an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary, which are specific features of certain types of government structures rather than defining features of a state itself.
The distinction made in option a. encapsulates the fundamental aspects of what constitutes a state without delving into government form specifics or cultural aspects, making it the most accurate definition according to the foundational principles of international law and political science.
28. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
- Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India: This statement is correct. The Chief Justice of India can request a retired judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a judge of the Supreme Court if the need arises, subject to the prior permission of the President of India. This provision allows for the utilization of the expertise and experience of retired judges in addressing the workload of the Supreme Court.
- A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does: This statement is also correct. Just like the Supreme Court, a High Court in India possesses the power of review. This means that it can review its own judgments or orders passed by it. The power of review enables the High Court to correct any errors or mistakes in its own decisions.
Therefore, both statements accurately describe aspects of the Indian judiciary.
Source: Constitution of India
29. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
- There is only one citizenship and one domicile: This statement is correct. In India, there is a single citizenship status for all Indian citizens, as enshrined in the Constitution of India. Every Indian citizen enjoys the same rights and privileges regardless of their place of residence within the country. However, domicile refers to the place where an individual resides and has the intention to remain permanently or for an extended period. While there is only one citizenship, an individual may have a domicile in a particular state or territory within India.
- A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State: This statement is incorrect. In India, the Head of State, which is the President, can be elected from among the citizens of India who are eligible to vote in the Presidential election. It is not a requirement for the President to be a citizen by birth. The eligibility criteria for becoming the President are outlined in the Constitution of India.
- A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances: This statement is incorrect. The Indian Constitution provides provisions for the deprivation of citizenship under certain circumstances, such as acquiring citizenship by fraud or false representation. Citizenship can also be revoked if it is obtained through registration or naturalization and the individual is subsequently found to have shown disloyalty or acts prejudicial to the national interest.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
Source: Constitution of India
30. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
a. A committed judiciary
b. Centralisation of powers
c. Elected government
d. Separation of powers
Answer: d. Separation of powers
Explanation:
In a liberal democracy, the separation of powers is considered the best safeguard of liberty. This principle involves dividing the powers of government into distinct branches – the legislative, executive, and judicial branches – each with its own functions and responsibilities. By separating powers among these branches, the system creates a system of checks and balances, where each branch has the ability to limit the powers of the other branches, thereby preventing the concentration of power and safeguarding individual liberties.
This system ensures that no single branch of government can dominate or abuse its authority, leading to a more accountable and balanced governance structure. The judiciary plays a crucial role in upholding the separation of powers by interpreting the law, resolving disputes, and ensuring that the actions of the other branches comply with the constitution.
31. How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?
1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are pre-dominant.
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions.
4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 4 only
d. 2 and 3
Answer: b. 1, 2 and 4
32. With reference to โpalm oilโ, consider the following statements:
1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 and 3 only
33. With reference to the Indus river system of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them, which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is such river that joins the Indus direct?
a. Chenab
b. Jhelum
c. Ravi
d. Sutlej
Answer: a. Chenab
Explanation:
The Indus River system includes several major tributaries: the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej. Among these:
- Jhelum joins the Chenab before reaching the Indus.
- Ravi joins the Chenab after flowing through Pakistan.
- Sutlej also eventually merges with the Chenab.
The Chenab itself results from the confluence of two rivers, the Chandra and the Bhaga, in the upper Himalayas. After receiving waters from its various tributaries including the Jhelum, Ravi, and Sutlej, the Chenab flows directly into the Indus River. This makes the Chenab the river among the given options that directly joins the Indus.
This configuration is key to understanding the hydrology of the Indus Basin, which is an essential aspect of water resource management in the region, spanning across multiple countries, notably Pakistan and India. This geographical and hydrological information can be found in various resources detailing the river systems of South Asia.
34. With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of
a. Glaciers
b. Mangrove areas
c. Ramsar sites
d. Saline lakes
Answer: d. Saline lakes
Explanation:
Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu are the names of saline lakes in India. These lakes are located in the state of Rajasthan. Saline lakes are bodies of water that have a high concentration of dissolved salts and minerals, resulting in the water being saline or brackish. They often occur in arid or semi-arid regions where evaporation rates exceed precipitation, leading to the concentration of salts in the water.
35. Consider the following rivers:
1. Brahmani
2. Nagavali
3. Subarnarekha
4. Vamsadhara
Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 3
Answer: b. 2 and 4
Explanation:
- Brahmani River: The Brahmani River is formed by the confluence of the Sankh and the South Koel rivers, which originate from the Chota Nagpur Plateau in Jharkhand and Odisha, not from the Eastern Ghats.
- Nagavali River: The Nagavali River originates in the Eastern Ghats near Lakhbahal in Kalahandi district of Odisha. It flows through Odisha and Andhra Pradesh, confirming its origin in the Eastern Ghats.
- Subarnarekha River: The Subarnarekha River originates from the Chota Nagpur Plateau in Jharkhand, not from the Eastern Ghats.
- Vamsadhara River: The Vamsadhara River also originates in the Eastern Ghats near Lanjigarh in Kalahandi district of Odisha. It flows through Odisha and Andhra Pradesh much like the Nagavali.
Thus, among the given rivers, only the Nagavali and Vamsadhara rise from the Eastern Ghats, making option b. the correct answer. This geographical information regarding the origin of these rivers is typically covered in detailed regional geography and river system studies concerning India.
36. Consider the following statements:
1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. โRare earth mineralsโ are present on seafloor in international waters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Global Ocean Commission and Licenses: The first statement is incorrect. It is not the Global Ocean Commission but the International Seabed Authority (ISA) that grants licenses for seabed exploration and mining in international waters. The ISA, established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), regulates all mineral-related activities in the international seabed area beyond the limits of national jurisdiction, commonly referred to as the Area.
- Indiaโs Licenses for Seabed Exploration: The second statement is correct. India has indeed received licenses for seabed mineral exploration in international waters. Specifically, India is one of the countries that have secured exploration contracts from the ISA, with permissions focusing on polymetallic nodules and other deep-sea minerals.
- Presence of Rare Earth Minerals: The third statement is also correct. The seafloor in international waters contains significant deposits of rare earth minerals and other valuable resources. These include polymetallic nodules, polymetallic sulphides, and cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts, which are rich in rare earth elements and other metals crucial for various high-tech and green technologies.
37. Among the following which one is the least water-efficient crop?
a. Sugarcane
b. Sunflower
c. Pearl millet
d. Red gram
Answer: a. Sugarcane
Explanation:
Sugarcane is considered the least water-efficient crop among the options provided. It is a water-intensive crop, requiring a significant amount of water for its growth and development, particularly during its maturation period. Sugarcane is often grown in regions with access to ample water resources or where irrigation is available. Its high water requirement makes it less suitable for cultivation in arid or water-stressed areas compared to other crops.
38. Consider the following statements:
1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
1. Warmer Western Sections in the Tropical Zone: Statement 1 is correct. In the tropical zones, the western sections of the oceans tend to be warmer than the eastern sections. This phenomenon is largely due to the influence of the trade winds, which blow from east to west. These winds push the surface waters westward, causing upwelling of colder, nutrient-rich waters from the deep in the eastern parts of the oceans (such as along the coasts of Peru and California). The displacement of surface water by the trade winds leads to warmer waters accumulating in the western parts of the ocean basins, as seen in the western Pacific and Atlantic oceans.
2. Warmer Eastern Sections in the Temperate Zone: Statement 2 is also correct. In the temperate zones, the prevailing winds are the westerlies, which blow from west to east. This wind pattern influences the ocean currents, contributing to the warming of the eastern sections of the oceans. For example, the Gulf Stream and the North Atlantic Drift warm the eastern sections of the North Atlantic Ocean, making regions like Western Europe milder than other areas at similar latitudes. Similarly, in the North Pacific, the Kuroshio Current warms the eastern coasts of Asia.
Thus, the wind patterns in both tropical and temperate zones play significant roles in determining the temperature gradients across the oceans. The distinct climatic effects produced by trade winds and westerlies across oceanic waters are fundamental concepts in oceanography and climatology.
39. In the context of Indiaโs preparation for Climate-Smart Agriculture, consider the following statements:
1. The โClimate-Smart Villageโ approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIARโs research centres.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
40. Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result te soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees. This is the most likely description of
a. Coniferous forest
b. Dry deciduous forest
c. Mangrove forest
d. Tropical rain forest
Answer: d. Tropical rain forest
Explanation:
Tropical rainforests are characterized by their high biodiversity and rapid nutrient cycling. The statement provided describes the conditions typical of tropical rainforests:
1. Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome: Tropical rainforests have warm temperatures and high humidity, which accelerate the decomposition of leaf litter and organic matter on the forest floor. This rapid decomposition process contributes to the recycling of nutrients and the formation of nutrient-rich soils.
2. The soil surface is often almost bare: Due to the fast decomposition of leaf litter, the forest floor in tropical rainforests may appear almost bare as nutrients are quickly absorbed by plant roots or washed away by heavy rainfall, leaving little organic matter on the surface.
3. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously: In tropical rainforests, the vegetation is characterized by a multi-layered canopy, with various plant species growing at different heights. Many plants, such as vines, lianas, and epiphytes, utilize the trees for support and access to sunlight, growing either by climbing the trees or as epiphytes rooted on the upper branches.
41. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates
a. The Right to Equality
b. The Directive Principles of State Policy
c. Te Right to Freedom
d. The Concept of Welfare
Answer: b. The Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation:
The Directive Principles of State Policy, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 36-51), outline the socio-economic goals that the State should strive to achieve. These principles are not enforceable by courts but are fundamental in governance and policy-making. One of the directive principles, specifically Article 39c. , states that the State shall strive to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources of the community are distributed in such a manner as to best serve the common good.
Concentration of wealth leads to economic inequality and can hinder the equitable distribution of resources, which is contrary to the principles outlined in Article 39c. of the Directive Principles. Therefore, concentration of wealth violates the directive principles of state policy.
42. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
a. Legal right available to citizens only
b. Legal rights available to any person
c. Fundamental Right available to citizens only
d. Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Answer: b. Legal rights available to any person
Explanation:
The Right to Property in India has undergone significant changes since the inception of the Indian Constitution. Initially, the Right to Property was a part of the Fundamental Rights under Articles 191. (f) and 31 of the Constitution of India. However, this status changed with the 44th Amendment to the Constitution in 1978.
- Removal as a Fundamental Right: The 44th Amendment removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights. Article 191. (f) was repealed, and Article 31 was amended to remove all provisions related to the right to property as a Fundamental Right.
- Status as a Legal Right: After its removal as a Fundamental Right, the Right to Property was recognized as a legal or constitutional right under Article 300A of the Indian Constitution. Article 300A states, No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. Thus, it provides that any person can own property in India, and it can only be taken away by a law.
43. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
a. A Democratic Republic
b. A Sovereign Democratic Republic
c. A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
d. A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Answer: b. A Sovereign Democratic Republic
Explanation:
On 26th January 1950, India formally adopted its Constitution, marking the transition from a British Dominion to a sovereign democratic republic. The Constitution of India came into effect on this day, establishing India as a sovereign nation with a democratic form of government. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India to be a sovereign democratic republic, emphasizing its independence, democratic governance, and republican form of government.
While terms like secular and socialist were added to the Preamble through constitutional amendments in later years, the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950, was that of a sovereign democratic republic.
44. Constitutional government means
a. a representative government of a nation with federal structure
b. a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
c. a government whose Head enjoys real powers
d. a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
Answer: d. a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
Explanation:
Constitutional government refers to a system of government where the powers and actions of political authorities are limited by a constitution. This limitation can be in the form of explicit provisions, checks and balances, and separation of powers outlined in the constitution. The government’s authority is constrained by the principles and rules set forth in the constitution, and it must operate within the framework established by the constitution.
45. With reference to India, the terms โHalbi, Ho and Kuiโ pertain to
a. dance forms of Northwest India
b. musical instruments
c. pre-historic cave paintings
d. tribal languages
Answer: d. tribal languages
Explanation:
The terms Halbi, Ho, and Kui pertain to tribal languages spoken by various indigenous communities in India.
- Halbi: It is a language spoken by the Halba tribe, primarily in the Indian states of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, and Odisha.
- Ho: It is a Dravidian language spoken by the Ho tribe mainly in the Indian states of Jharkhand, Odisha, Bihar, West Bengal, and Madhya Pradesh.
- Kui: It is an Austroasiatic language spoken by the Kui tribe predominantly in the Indian state of Odisha.
These languages are integral parts of the cultural heritage of the tribal communities in India and contribute to the linguistic diversity of the country.
46. Consider the following statements in respect of Barat Ratna and Padma Awards:
1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 181. of the Constitution of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
47. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.
Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements:?
a. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.
b. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.
c. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct.
d. Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.
Answer: d. Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.
48. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000:
1. American golfer tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
2. The award was received mostly by โFormula Oneโ players so far.
3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award: This statement is correct. Tiger Woods was indeed the first winner of the Laureus World Sportsman of the Year Award in 2000. He was recognized for his exceptional performances in golf during that period, which was groundbreaking in terms of both achievement and influence on the sport.
- The award was received mostly by โFormula Oneโ players so far: This statement is incorrect. While Formula One drivers have indeed received several Laureus Awards over the years, they do not constitute the majority of winners. The awards have seen a diverse group of recipients across various sports, including tennis, athletics, and swimming, among others. Formula One drivers like Michael Schumacher and Lewis Hamilton have been prominent among recipients, but they do not dominate the award history.
- Roger Federer received this award the maximum number of times compared to others: This statement is correct. Roger Federer holds the record for the most Laureus World Sportsman of the Year Awards, having won it several times. His dominance in tennis during the peak of his career and his enduring influence and performance in the sport have earned him this recognition multiple times.
49. Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics:
1. The official motto for this Olympics is A New World.
2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
50. Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship:
1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
1. Deciding the Finalists: Statement 1 is incorrect. The finalists for the ICC World Test Championship were not decided solely based on the number of matches they won. Instead, the finalists were determined by the points and the percentage of points (Points Percentage System) they earned throughout the championship. This Points Percentage System was introduced to account for matches that were canceled or not played due to unforeseen circumstances like the COVID-19 pandemic. This system ensured that teams were ranked based on the percentage of points they won out of the total points they contested for, rather than just the number of matches won.
2. Ranking of New Zealand Ahead of England: Statement 2 is also incorrect. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England not necessarily because it won more matches, but because it had a higher percentage of points earned. This was due to the Points Percentage System mentioned earlier. This system calculated the total points won over the total points contested, and since some series had different numbers of matches, a simple count of match wins was not a sufficient metric for ranking.