Topic’s Weightage
| Subjects | No. of questions |
| Ancient Indian History | 4 |
| Medieval Indian History | 5 |
| 1757-1947 | 7 |
| Economics | 13 |
| Agriculture | 4 |
| Geography | 9 |
| Environment | 16 |
| International Relations | 6 |
| Polity | 16 |
| Indian Society | 1 |
| Science & Technology | 12 |
| Current Affairs | 7 |
| Total | 100 |
51. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
52. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
a. The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
b. The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
c. It resulted in the cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
d. Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Answer: b. The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
Explanation:
Land reforms in independent India were implemented with several key objectives aimed at rectifying the imbalances in land ownership and improving agricultural productivity and the socio-economic status of the rural poor. The core focus of these reforms was to:
Redistribute land to the landless and marginal farmers: This involved the abolition of various forms of tenancy and landowning systems like Zamindari, Jagirdari, etc., which were prevalent during and before the British colonial period. Land ceiling acts were enacted to limit the amount of land one could own, and the surplus land was intended to be redistributed to landless laborers and marginal farmers.
The other options are incorrect based on the following:
a. The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings. This statement is partly true as some states implemented land ceiling acts targeting family holdings while others targeted individual holdings. However, the implementation varied across different states, making this statement not universally applicable as the primary objective of land reforms.
c. It resulted in the cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation. This statement is misleading. While land reforms did influence agricultural practices, the primary focus was on improving the livelihoods of the landless and small farmers rather than promoting cash crops specifically. The choice of crops cultivated after land reforms depended more on local conditions and market demands.
d. Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits. This statement is incorrect. There were several exemptions to the ceiling limits, including land used for educational, research, and public purposes among others, and these exemptions varied from state to state.
53. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
a. International Monetary Fund
b. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
c. World Economic Forum
d. World Bank
Answer: c. World Economic Forum
Explanation:
The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It is an annual report that assesses the competitiveness landscape of economies around the world. The report provides insights into the factors driving productivity and prosperity in different countries and regions, including macroeconomic stability, infrastructure, innovation capability, labor market efficiency, and institutional frameworks.
54. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
This statement is correct. The Charter Act of 1813 marked a significant shift in British colonial policy. It removed the East India Company’s monopoly over trade in India, opening up trade to other British merchants, with the exception of the tea trade and all trade with China, which remained under the Company’s control.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
This statement is correct. Although the Charter Act of 1813 did not explicitly state the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories, it laid the groundwork for greater government control and later acts that would solidify this point. It marked the beginning of a transition from a commercial enterprise to a more formalized colonial governance structure under the Crown.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
This statement is incorrect. The Charter Act of 1813 did not transfer control of Indian revenues directly to the British Parliament. While it did allow the British government more oversight and required the company to report on its civil, military, and financial affairs in India, the direct control of revenues and administration continued to be in the hands of the East India Company until the Government of India Act of 1858 following the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
55. With reference to the Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Statement 1: It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries. This statement is correct. The Swadeshi Movement, which began as a response to the partition of Bengal in 1905, aimed at promoting indigenous industries and products over foreign goods. It encouraged the use of domestically produced goods and boycotting British goods. This movement led to the revival of indigenous crafts and industries, as people began to produce and consume locally made products.
Statement 2: The National Council of Education was established as a part of the Swadeshi Movement. This statement is also correct. The National Council of Education, later known as the Jadavpur University, was indeed established during the Swadeshi Movement in 1905. It was established in Bengal with the aim of promoting education based on Indian values and culture, and it played a significant role in promoting nationalistic sentiments and fostering intellectual development during the freedom struggle.
56. Consider the following pairs:
Movement/Organization Leader
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement E. V. Ramaswami Naicker
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League: Mahatma Gandhi was indeed associated with the All India Anti-Untouchability League, which was founded in 1932 as part of Gandhi’s efforts to combat the social evil of untouchability and promote social equality and justice.
2. All India Kisan Sabha: Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was a prominent leader of the All India Kisan Sabha, which was founded in 1936 with the aim of organizing and mobilizing peasants and farmers to address their socio-economic issues and demand land reforms and fair treatment from landlords and the government.
3. Self-Respect Movement: E. V. Ramaswami Naicker, commonly known as Periyar, was the leader of the Self-Respect Movement, which emerged in the early 20th century in Tamil Nadu, India. The movement aimed to promote self-respect and dignity among the non-Brahmin Dravidian communities and challenge the social hierarchy and dominance of Brahminical values in society.
57. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
a. Chanhudaro
b. Kot Diji
c. Sohgaura
d. Desalpur
Answer: c. Sohgaura
Explanation:
Sohgaura is not a Harappan site. It is a historical site located in Uttar Pradesh, India, associated with the Mauryan period and later Buddhist remains. Sohgaura is known for its archaeological finds dating back to the Mauryan and post-Mauryan periods, including artifacts such as pottery, coins, and Buddhist stupas.
On the other hand, Chanhudaro (option a), Kot Diji (option b), and Desalpur (option d) are all Harappan sites:
a) Chanhudaro is an archaeological site belonging to the Indus Valley Civilization (Harappan Civilization) located in Sindh, Pakistan. It was one of the major urban centers of the Indus civilization, characterized by well-planned streets, residential buildings, and public structures.
b) Kot Diji is another Harappan site located in Sindh, Pakistan. It represents an early phase of the Indus Valley Civilization and is known for its fortified settlement and distinctive pottery.
d) Desalpur is also a Harappan site located in Gujarat, India. It is associated with the Harappan Civilization and has yielded artifacts and structures typical of this ancient urban culture.
58. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
a. Kanganahalli
b. Sanchi I
c. Shahbazgarhi
d. Sohgaura
Answer: a. Kanganahalli
Explanation:
The site at Kanganahalli is known for its stupa which contains relief sculptures where ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) is mentioned along with what is believed to be a stone portrait of Ashoka himself. This site has yielded inscriptions and sculptures that provide significant historical insights into the Mauryan period and the reign of Ashoka. These findings are crucial as they are among the few visual representations associated directly with Ashoka, compared to other sites where his presence is inferred from edicts and inscriptions alone.
59. Consider the following:
1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals
Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
- Deification of the Buddha: In Mahayana Buddhism, the Buddha is often revered and worshipped as a divine figure or cosmic being, rather than simply as a historical teacher who attained enlightenment. This includes the belief in various Buddhas and Bodhisattvas who embody different aspects of enlightenment and compassion, such as Amitabha Buddha, Avalokiteshvara, and Manjushri.
- Treading the path of Bodhisattvas: Mahayana Buddhism places a strong emphasis on the ideal of the Bodhisattva, a being who aspires to attain enlightenment for the benefit of all sentient beings. Bodhisattvas are depicted as compassionate figures who postpone their own liberation to help others on the path to awakening. Practicing the virtues of compassion, generosity, and wisdom, and aspiring to become a Bodhisattva is central to Mahayana Buddhist practice.
- Image worship and rituals: Mahayana Buddhism incorporates elaborate rituals and devotional practices, including the worship of images and sacred objects. Devotees may offer prayers, incense, flowers, and other offerings to Buddhas, Bodhisattvas, and other revered figures as part of their spiritual practice. Rituals such as chanting, meditation, and puja (worship) are also common in Mahayana Buddhist traditions.
60. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
a. It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
b. It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
c. The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
d. The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Answer: a. It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
Explanation:
During the Gupta period in ancient India, forced labor, known as Vishti, was indeed prevalent and was considered a source of income for the state, functioning as a form of tax paid by the people. Vishti involved compulsory labor imposed by the state or local authorities on the populace for various public works projects, such as infrastructure development, construction of buildings, and maintenance of irrigation systems. The laborers were often required to contribute their services without receiving adequate compensation, and Vishti was regarded as a means for the state to mobilize labor resources for public projects while minimizing the financial burden on the treasury.
61. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?
a. Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
b. Tobacco, cotton and rubber.
c. Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
d. Rubber, coffee and wheat
Answer: a. Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
Explanation:
Plants that were domesticated in the New World (the Americas) and introduced into the Old World (Europe, Africa, and Asia) include tobacco, cocoa, and rubber.
1. Tobacco (Nicotiana tabacum) was originally cultivated by indigenous peoples in the Americas for ceremonial and medicinal purposes. It was later introduced to Europe by Spanish explorers in the 16th century and became widely cultivated and consumed worldwide.
2. Cocoa (Theobroma cacao) was also domesticated by indigenous peoples in Central and South America. It was used by ancient civilizations such as the Mayans and Aztecs for making chocolate beverages. Cocoa beans were brought to Europe by Spanish explorers in the 16th century, leading to the global spread of chocolate consumption.
3. Rubber (Hevea brasiliensis) was another plant native to the Amazon rainforest region of South America. Indigenous peoples in the Americas used latex from rubber trees for various purposes. Rubber was introduced to Europe in the 19th century and played a crucial role in the industrial revolution, particularly in the development of rubber-based products such as tires.
62. Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. A double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 only
63. Consider the following pairs
Famous place : River
Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga
Tiruchirappalli: Cauvery
Hampi: Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- Pandharpur is correctly matched with the river Chandrabhaga. The Chandrabhaga River, also known as the Bhima River, flows near the town of Pandharpur in Maharashtra, which is famous for the Vithoba Temple, a major pilgrimage site for devotees of Lord Vithoba (Vishnu).
- Tiruchirappalli is correctly matched with the river Cauvery. Tiruchirappalli, commonly known as Trichy, is situated on the banks of the Cauvery River in the state of Tamil Nadu, India. The Cauvery River is one of the major rivers of South India and holds significant cultural and religious importance.
- Hampi is not correctly matched with the river Malaprabha. Hampi, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River, not the Malaprabha River. The Tungabhadra River is a tributary of the Krishna River and passes through the ancient ruins of Hampi in Karnataka.
64. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some states than in others because
a. poverty rates vary from State to State
b. price levels vary from State to State
c. Gross State Product varies from State to State
d. quality of public distribution varies from State to State
Answer: b. price levels vary from State to State
Explanation:
Official poverty lines in India are higher in some states than in others because price levels vary from state to state. The cost of living, including the prices of essential goods and services, varies significantly across different states due to factors such as regional economic development, local market conditions, transportation costs, and availability of resources. As a result, the poverty line, which is based on the cost of a minimum standard of living, needs to be adjusted to reflect the varying price levels in different states.
For example, the cost of food, housing, healthcare, and education may be higher in urban areas or more developed states compared to rural areas or less developed states. Therefore, the poverty line in states with higher price levels needs to be set higher to ensure that it accurately reflects the cost of meeting basic needs.
65. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of the cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere?
a. Creating the artificial rains in some regions
b. Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
c. Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
d. Reducing the global warming
Answer: d. Reducing the global warming
Explanation:
Some scientists suggest the use of the cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulfate aerosol into the stratosphere as potential geoengineering methods to reduce global warming. These techniques aim to counteract the effects of climate change by either reflecting sunlight away from the Earth’s surface or enhancing the Earth’s ability to radiate heat back into space.
- Cirrus cloud thinning involves reducing the thickness or coverage of cirrus clouds, which are high-altitude clouds composed of ice crystals. Thinning cirrus clouds could potentially allow more outgoing longwave radiation to escape into space, thereby cooling the Earth’s surface.
- Injection of sulfate aerosols into the stratosphere involves releasing sulfur dioxide or sulfate particles into the upper atmosphere. These aerosols can scatter incoming sunlight and increase the reflection of solar radiation back into space, leading to a cooling effect on the Earth’s surface.
These geoengineering techniques are highly controversial and come with potential risks and uncertainties, including unintended consequences and ethical considerations.
66. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
a. Extraction of rare earth elements
b. Natural gas extraction technologies
c. Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
d. Waste-to-energy technologies
Answer: d. Waste-to-energy technologies
Explanation:
Pyrolysis and plasma gasification are mentioned in the context of waste-to-energy technologies. These processes are used to convert organic waste materials into useful products such as heat, electricity, and synthetic fuels.
Pyrolysis involves the thermal decomposition of organic materials in the absence of oxygen to produce biochar, bio-oil, and syngas. Plasma gasification, on the other hand, uses a high-temperature plasma arc to break down waste materials into syngas, which can be used as a fuel for power generation or as a feedstock for the production of chemicals.
These waste-to-energy technologies offer potential solutions for managing and reducing the environmental impact of municipal solid waste while also generating renewable energy resources.
67. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
a. Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
b. Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
c. Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
d. Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Answer: a. Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
Explanation:
The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is located in the Western Ghats of Kerala and Tamil Nadu, India. It is known for its rich biodiversity and unique ecosystems. The reserve includes Neyyar, Peppara, and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries in Kerala, along with the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu. These protected areas together form the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve, which is recognized for its significant ecological importance and conservation value.
68. Consider the following statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Some species of turtles are indeed herbivores. For example, green sea turtles primarily feed on seagrasses and algae.
Statement 2 is correct. Some species of fish are herbivores, feeding primarily on aquatic vegetation. For example, the common carp is a well-known herbivorous fish species.
Statement 3 is correct. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores. For instance, manatees and dugongs are herbivorous marine mammals that feed on aquatic plants.
Statement 4 is correct. Some species of snakes are viviparous, meaning they give birth to live young instead of laying eggs. For example, some species of boas and vipers are viviparous.
69. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
1. Blue-finned Mahseer: Cauvery River
This pairing is correct. The Blue-finned Mahseer is indeed found in the Cauvery River basin. It is a type of large freshwater fish that is native to this region in southern India. Conservation efforts have been focused on this species due to its popularity among anglers and its ecological importance.
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin: Chambal River
This pairing is incorrect. The Irrawaddy Dolphin is primarily found in coastal areas and rivers in parts of South and Southeast Asia, but not in the Chambal River. It is more commonly associated with the Bay of Bengal and certain rivers like the Irrawaddy River in Myanmar, not the Chambal River in India.
3. Rusty-spotted Cat: Eastern Ghats
This pairing is correct. The Rusty-spotted Cat, one of the smallest wild cat species in the world, is found in India and Sri Lanka, including habitats within the Eastern Ghats. It is known for its reclusive nature and prefers dense vegetation and rocky areas.
70. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?
a. They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
b. They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
c. They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
d. They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
Answer: a. They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
Explanation:
Microbeads are tiny plastic particles, often found in personal care products such as exfoliating scrubs, toothpaste, and cosmetics. These microbeads are not biodegradable and can accumulate in the environment, particularly in aquatic ecosystems. When microbeads are washed down drains or flushed into water bodies, they can enter rivers, lakes, and oceans, where they pose serious threats to marine life. Marine animals may mistake microbeads for food and ingest them, leading to physical harm, digestive issues, and potential disruption of the food chain. Additionally, microbeads can adsorb and concentrate toxic chemicals present in the water, further exacerbating their impact on marine ecosystems.
71. Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
a. Chalukya
b. Chandela
c. Rashtrakuta
d. Vijayanagara
Answer: d. Vijayanagara
Explanation:
Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was indeed a notable feature in the temple construction in the Vijayanagara kingdom. ‘Kalyana Mandapa’ refers to a marriage hall or a ceremonial hall, often found in South Indian temple complexes. These mandapas were used for various religious and social functions, including weddings, religious ceremonies, and community gatherings. The Vijayanagara Empire, which flourished in Southern India from the 14th to 17th centuries, was known for its patronage of temple architecture and construction. Temples built during the Vijayanagara period often included elaborate mandapas, reflecting the empire’s cultural and architectural achievements.
72. Consider the following statements:
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. In the revenue administration of the Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was indeed known as ‘Amil’. The Amil was responsible for collecting taxes and revenues on behalf of the Sultanate from various regions.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Iqta system of the Sultans of Delhi was not an ancient indigenous institution; rather, it was borrowed from the earlier Islamic caliphates. The Iqta system involved the grant of land revenue rights to military officials or nobles in exchange for military service or administrative duties.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ did not come into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi. The Mir Bakshi was an important administrative position in the Mughal Empire, responsible for the organization and administration of the imperial household and the supervision of the imperial army.
73. Consider the following statements:
1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
1. Statement 1 is incorrect. Saint Nimbarka, also known as Nimbarkacharya, was not a contemporary of Akbar. He lived much earlier, around the 12th or 13th century CE, and was the founder of the Nimbarka Sampradaya, a Vaishnava tradition in Hinduism.
2. Statement 2 is also incorrect. Saint Kabir, a prominent figure in the Bhakti movement, lived during the 15th century CE, while Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi, also known as Mujaddid Alif Sani, was a Sufi saint who lived during the Mughal period in the 16th and 17th centuries. There is no historical evidence to suggest that Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
74. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 1 and 3 only
75. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
- Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru was indeed associated with the All India Liberal Federation and served as its President during the Indian National Movement. The All India Liberal Federation was a political organization that advocated for liberal principles and played a role in India’s struggle for independence.
- K. C. Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India, which was tasked with drafting the Constitution of India. He represented the Indian National Congress in the Constituent Assembly and contributed to the framing of India’s constitution.
- P. C. Joshi, on the other hand, was not the General Secretary of the Communist Party of India during the Indian National Movement. The General Secretary of the Communist Party of India during the Indian National Movement was P.C. Joshi.
76. With reference to Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
a. Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
b. Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
c. Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
d. Tansen invented many Ragas.
Answer: a. Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
Explanation:
Tansen’s original name was Ramtanu Pandey. The title Tansen was not given to him by Emperor Akbar; rather, it was a name he adopted later in his life. Tansen was one of the most renowned musicians in the court of Emperor Akbar, and he was highly respected for his musical talents and compositions. He composed Dhrupads not only on Hindu gods and goddesses but also on various themes including nature, love, and devotion. Additionally, Tansen is credited with inventing and popularizing several Ragas in Indian classical music.
77. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to the album and individual portrait?
a. Humayun
b. Akbar
c. Jahangir
d. Shah Jahan
Answer: c. Jahangir
Explanation:
Jahangir, the fourth Mughal Emperor, shifted the emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to the album and individual portrait during his reign. He was known for his patronage of the arts, particularly painting, and he commissioned numerous albums and portraits. Jahangir’s reign marked a significant development in Mughal painting, with a focus on detailed individual portraits, naturalistic representations, and the depiction of court scenes and daily life.
78. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
a. Manas National Park
b. Namdapha National Park
c. Neora Valley National Park
d. Valley of Flowers National Park
Answer: d. Valley of Flowers National Park
Explanation:
Valley of Flowers National Park is located in the state of Uttarakhand, India, and it lies completely within the temperate alpine zone. The park is renowned for its stunning natural beauty, diverse alpine flora, and breathtaking landscapes. Situated in the Western Himalayas, the Valley of Flowers is characterized by its temperate climate and high-altitude ecosystem, making it an ideal habitat for a wide variety of alpine plants and flowers.
79. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
a. Department of Science and Technology
b. Ministry of Employment
c. NITI Aayog
d. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Answer: c. NITI Aayog
Explanation:
The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is set up under the auspices of NITI Aayog, which is a policy think tank of the Government of India. AIM aims to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the country by fostering a culture of innovation and nurturing innovative startups. It implements various initiatives such as Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) in schools, Atal Incubation Centers (AICs) for startups, and Atal New India Challenges (ANIC) to address societal challenges through innovation.
80. On 21st June, the Sun
a. does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
b. does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
c. shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
d. shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Answer: a. does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
Explanation:
On June 21st, which is the date of the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, the Sun reaches its highest position in the sky as seen from the north of the equator. This date marks the longest day of the year in the Northern Hemisphere.
At the Arctic Circle: On this day, the Arctic Circle experiences the phenomenon known as the Midnight Sun. The Sun does not set below the horizon at all during this time, resulting in 24 hours of daylight. This occurs because the tilt of the Earth’s axis (approximately 23.5 degrees) positions the north pole towards the Sun.
The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:
b. does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle: On June 21st, the Antarctic Circle is experiencing polar night, which means the Sun does not rise above the horizon at all.
c. shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator: The Sun shines directly overhead at noon on the Equator during the equinoxes (around March 21st and September 21st), not on June 21st.
d. shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn: On June 21st, the Sun is directly overhead at noon at the Tropic of Cancer, not the Tropic of Capricorn.
81. Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Agricultural soils can release nitrogen oxides(NOx) into the environment through processes such as microbial activity, particularly when nitrogen-containing fertilizers are applied to the soil. Nitrogen oxides are a group of reactive gases that can contribute to air pollution and the formation of secondary pollutants such as ozone and particulate matter.
Statement 2 is correct. Cattle, as well as other livestock such as poultry, can release ammonia(NH3) into the environment as a byproduct of their digestive processes. Ammonia emissions from livestock farming activities can contribute to air pollution and have environmental impacts such as eutrophication and acidification.
Statement 3 is correct. The poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds, including ammonia and nitrogen oxides, into the environment through activities such as poultry farming and waste management. These emissions can occur from animal waste, feed management, and manure storage practices associated with poultry production.
82. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
a. Recently discovered uranium deposits
b. Tropical rain forests
c. Underground cave systems
d. Water reservoirs
Answer: d. Water reservoirs
Explanation:
Aliyar, Isapur, and Kangsabati are all known for their water reservoirs.
- Aliyar Dam is located in Tamil Nadu, India. It is a reservoir formed by the Aliyar River, which is part of the Parambikulam-Aliyar Project.
- Isapur Dam is situated in Maharashtra, India. It is a reservoir built across the Penganga River as part of the Isapur Dam project.
- Kangsabati Dam is located in West Bengal, India. It is a reservoir formed by the Kangsabati River, serving irrigation and drinking water purposes in the region.
These places are known for their water reservoirs, which play crucial roles in providing water for various purposes such as irrigation, drinking water supply, hydropower generation, and flood control.
83. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as a fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. While hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) can help reduce carbon monoxide emissions, its main advantage lies in reducing carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions rather than eliminating carbon monoxide emissions entirely.
Statement 2 is correct. H-CNG as a fuel indeed reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions compared to conventional CNG. The addition of hydrogen to CNG improves combustion efficiency, leading to cleaner emissions.
Statement 3 is correct. Hydrogen can be blended with CNG in varying proportions, and it is feasible to blend hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume with CNG as fuel for buses. This blending allows for the benefits of both fuels to be utilized effectively.
Statement 4 is incorrect. While H-CNG may offer environmental benefits and potentially improve engine performance, it is unlikely to make the fuel less expensive than conventional CNG. The production and distribution of hydrogen may involve additional costs compared to CNG.
84. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
a. Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
b. Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
c. The Earth’s surface would have the low temperature on cloudy nights.
d. Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Answer: b. Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
Explanation:
On a clear night, the Earth’s surface cools down by radiating heat away into space. This process is known as radiative cooling. As the surface cools, the temperature can drop below the dew point, allowing dew to form if there is sufficient moisture in the air. Dew point is the temperature at which air becomes saturated with moisture and condensation begins.
However, on a cloudy night, the clouds act as a blanket over the Earth. They are effective at reflecting the infrared radiation emitted by the Earth back towards the surface. This reflected radiation helps to keep the surface warmer than it would be on a clear night. Since the surface does not cool down as much, it remains above the dew point temperature, preventing the formation of dew.
This explanation is grounded in the basic principles of terrestrial radiation and cloud insulation effects, which are fundamental topics in meteorology and atmospheric science. Clouds play a critical role in the Earth’s energy balance by reflecting and absorbing both incoming solar radiation and outgoing infrared radiation.
85. Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
- The statement that The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review is incorrect. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India, passed in 1978, primarily focused on limiting the scope of the Emergency provisions introduced during the period of Emergency (1975-1977). It did not introduce any specific provision placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
- The statement that The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary is correct. The 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India, which sought to establish the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) for the appointment of judges, was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015 in the case of Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India. The court held that the amendment was unconstitutional as it undermined the independence of the judiciary by compromising the collegium system, which had been upheld by earlier judicial pronouncements as the method for judicial appointments.
86. Consider the following statements:
1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 3 and 4
Answer: c. 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
Here’s the explanation for each statement:
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
This statement is incorrect. The process of impeachment begins with either 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha submitting a signed notice to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The Speaker or the Chairman has the discretion to accept or reject the motion for impeachment. If accepted, an inquiry committee is formed to investigate the charges against the judge.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
This statement is incorrect. The Constitution of India provides the grounds for impeachment as proved misbehaviour or incapacity but does not define these terms in detail. The specifics are generally left to the interpretation of Parliament and the process outlined in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
This statement is correct. The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 lays out the detailed process for the investigation and inquiry into allegations of incapacity or misbehaviour of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, supplementing the constitutional provisions.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
This statement is correct. For an impeachment motion to pass, it requires the support of a majority of the total membership of each House of Parliament and not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
87. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Lal Bahadur Shastri
c. Indira Gandhi
d. Morarji Desai
Answer: a. Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation:
The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India was introduced through the First Amendment Act of 1951, which was enacted during the prime ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru. The purpose of introducing the Ninth Schedule was to provide protection to certain laws from judicial review, ensuring their validity and enforceability, even if they violated fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution. This measure was taken in response to concerns about the potential impact of judicial decisions on laws enacted by the state legislatures and the Parliament.
88. Consider the following statements:
1. The coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
- The statement that, The coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi is correct. In 1973, the Government of India nationalized the coal sector, forming Coal India Limited (CIL) to manage coal mining operations in the country. This move aimed to bring about greater centralization and control over coal resources.
- The statement that, Now, coal blocks are allocated on a lottery basis is incorrect. As of the last update, coal blocks in India were allocated through a process of competitive bidding, not by lottery. The process involves the auctioning of coal blocks to eligible bidders, with the highest bidder winning the rights to develop and extract coal from the allocated block.
- The statement that, Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production is also incorrect. India continues to import coal to supplement its domestic production and meet the growing demand for energy. While efforts have been made to increase domestic coal production, India still relies on coal imports to bridge the gap between demand and supply.
89. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- The statement that The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’ is correct. This Act provides for the exemption of certain offices from disqualification under the ‘Office of Profit’ clause, allowing holders of these offices to concurrently serve as Members of Parliament (MPs) or Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) without facing disqualification.
- The statement that The above-mentioned Act was amended five times is also correct. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 has been amended several times to expand or modify the list of exempted offices, thereby affecting the scope of disqualification under the ‘Office of Profit’ clause.
- The statement that The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not explicitly define the term ‘Office of Profit’. Instead, it provides guidelines for determining whether a particular office constitutes an ‘Office of Profit’ based on factors such as whether the office is held by a legislator, whether it carries any remuneration, and whether it involves the performance of executive or administrative functions.
90. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
a. Third Schedule
b. Fifth Schedule
c. Ninth Schedule
d. Twelfth Schedule
Answer: b. Fifth Schedule
Explanation:
Under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, provisions are made for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. It includes safeguards to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes, including provisions related to the ownership and transfer of land. If tribal land within Scheduled Areas is transferred to private parties for activities like mining without adhering to the safeguards and procedures outlined in the Fifth Schedule, such transfers can be declared null and void by the appropriate authorities to protect the rights of the tribal communities.
91. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
a. Anti-malarial drug
b. Biodiesel
c. Pulp for the paper industry
d. Textile fiber
Answer: d. Textile fiber
Explanation:
Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) is valued for its strong and durable fibers, which are suitable for making textiles. These fibers have been traditionally used by communities in the Himalayan region for weaving various products such as clothing, ropes, and bags. In recent years, there has been growing awareness about the sustainable use of Himalayan nettle fibers for textile production, especially due to their eco-friendly properties and the potential for supporting local livelihoods and conservation efforts.
92. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
- Satellite images and remote sensing data can be used to measure or estimate the chlorophyll content in vegetation of a specific location through techniques such as vegetation indices derived from spectral reflectance data.
- Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies can be estimated using satellite-based remote sensing techniques, including monitoring methane emissions through infrared remote sensing.
- Land surface temperatures of a specific location can be measured using satellite thermal sensors, which capture the emitted radiation from the Earth’s surface in the thermal infrared wavelength range.
93. Consider the following States:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
a. 2-3-1-4
b. 2-3-4-1
c. 3-2-4-1
d. 3-2-1-4
Answer: c. 3-2-4-1
Explanation:
1. Maharashtra typically has the highest percentage of forest cover among the states mentioned.
2. Madhya Pradesh generally follows Maharashtra in terms of forest cover percentage.
3. Odisha usually comes next after Madhya Pradesh.
4. Chhattisgarh typically has the lowest percentage of forest cover among the states mentioned.
94. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
This is correct. Methane hydrate, also known as clathrate, is a solid ice-like form of water that contains methane within its crystal structure. These deposits are found in cold or high-pressure environments like permafrost or under the ocean floor. Rising temperatures due to global warming can destabilize these deposits, potentially releasing methane, a potent greenhouse gas, into the atmosphere. This release could further accelerate global warming in a feedback loop.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
This statement is also correct. Significant amounts of methane hydrate have been identified in Arctic regions such as the permafrost of the Arctic tundra, as well as beneath the seafloor along continental margins worldwide. These deposits represent a large but challenging-to-extract source of natural gas.
3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
This is accurate. Methane is a much more potent greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide but has a shorter atmospheric lifetime. Typically, methane in the atmosphere will oxidize into carbon dioxide and water vapor within about a decade. Although carbon dioxide is less potent per molecule, it remains in the atmosphere much longer, continuing to contribute to the greenhouse effect.
95. Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 1 and 4 ‘only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
- Carbon monoxide (CO) is released during incomplete combustion of biomass or crop residues.
- Methane (CH4) can also be released during the burning of crop or biomass residue, particularly if the conditions are anaerobic.
- Ozone (O3) can be formed as a secondary pollutant in the atmosphere through the reaction of precursor pollutants like nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs), which can be emitted during biomass burning.
- Sulphur dioxide (SO2) can be released if the biomass contains sulfur-containing compounds, which can be the case with certain types of crop residues.
96. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?
a. 1, 2 and 4 only
b. 1, 3 and 4 only
c. 2 and 5 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: b. 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
To evaluate the accuracy of these pairs of seas and their bordering countries, let’s check each match:
1. Adriatic Sea : Albania
Correct. Albania has a coastline along the Adriatic Sea.
2. Black Sea : Croatia
Incorrect. Croatia does not border the Black Sea. Croatia is located along the Adriatic Sea.
3. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan
Correct. Kazakhstan has a significant coastline along the Caspian Sea.
4. Mediterranean Sea : Morocco
Correct. Morocco has a coastline along the Mediterranean Sea, in addition to its Atlantic coast.
5. Red Sea : Syria
Incorrect. Syria does not border the Red Sea. It borders the Mediterranean Sea. The countries bordering the Red Sea include Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, Djibouti, Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Jordan, and Israel.
Given the evaluation, the correctly matched pairs are:
- Adriatic Sea : Albania
- Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan
- Mediterranean Sea : Morocco
The correct answer is: b. 1, 3 and 4 only
97. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
a. China
b. India
c. Myanmar
d. Vietnam
Answer: b. India
98. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 5
d. 3 and 5
Answer: a. 1, 2 and 4
99. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
a. Pesticides in agriculture
b. Preservatives in processed foods
c. Fruit-ripening agents
d. Moisturising agents in cosmetics
Answer: a. Pesticides in agriculture
Explanation:
Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos are all examples of chemical pesticides that are commonly used in agriculture. These pesticides are applied to crops to control various pests, including insects, mites, and nematodes. However, their use is viewed with apprehension due to their potential adverse effects on human health and the environment.
These pesticides have been associated with various health hazards, including acute poisoning, chronic health effects, and environmental contamination. Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos are known to be highly toxic to humans and other organisms and can pose risks to wildlife, aquatic ecosystems, and non-target organisms.
The apprehension surrounding the use of these chemicals in agriculture stems from concerns about their potential adverse effects on human health, biodiversity, and the environment. In many cases, there is growing awareness of the need to reduce reliance on chemical pesticides and to adopt more sustainable agricultural practices that minimize the use of harmful chemicals.
100. Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 3 only