Topic’s Weightage
| Subjects | No. of questions |
| Ancient Indian History | 3 |
| Medieval Indian History | 1 |
| 1757-1947 | 13 |
| Art & Culture | 1 |
| Economics | 17 |
| Agriculture | 2 |
| Geography | 14 |
| Environment | 11 |
| International Relations | 6 |
| Polity | 13 |
| Indian Society | 1 |
| Security | 1 |
| Science & Technology | 8 |
| Current Affairs | 9 |
| Total | 100 |
1. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. None
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), with an operational name of NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), is an autonomous regional satellite navigation system developed by India. Let’s evaluate the given statements:
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
This statement is correct. The IRNSS constellation is designed to have seven satellites: three in geostationary orbit (GEO) and four in geosynchronous orbit with an inclination that allows them to appear to be in a fixed position relative to the Indian region.
2. IRNSS covers the entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
This statement has an error in the area coverage value. IRNSS is designed to provide accurate position information to users within India and up to 1500 km around its borders, not 5500 sq. km.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
This statement is incorrect. IRNSS/NavIC is a regional system, not a global one. It is specifically designed to cover India and its surrounding region, not to provide full global coverage like other systems such as the Global Positioning System (GPS) by the United States or the Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS) by Russia.
Given these points, the correct answer is: a. 1 only
2. Consider the following phenomena :
1. Light is affected by gravity.
2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
3. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
- GM mustard indeed contains genes from a soil bacterium (Bacillus thuringiensis) that provide the plant with resistance to a wide variety of pests, particularly caterpillars. This trait is known as insect resistance or pest resistance.
- GM mustard has been developed to possess genes that confer self-pollination, which is a desirable trait for mustard plants. This characteristic ensures genetic purity and stability in the offspring, preventing unintended hybridization with other mustard varieties or related species.
- GM mustard has been primarily developed by scientists at the Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants (CGMCP) at the University of Delhi, South Campus. It has not been jointly developed by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and Punjab Agricultural University (PAU). However, there may have been collaborative efforts involving different institutions for research and development related to GM mustard.
4. Consider the following pairs:
Terms sometimes seen in news Context /Topic
1. Belle II experiment – Artificial Intelligence
2. Blockchain technology – Digital/Cryptocurrency
3. CRISPR — Cas9 – Particle Physics
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
- Blockchain technology is correctly matched with Digital/Cryptocurrency. Blockchain technology is a decentralized digital ledger technology that underlies cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin. It is also used in various other applications beyond cryptocurrencies, such as supply chain management, voting systems, and secure data storage.
- Belle II experiment is not related to Artificial Intelligence. Instead, it is an experimental particle physics project aimed at studying the properties of elementary particles. It is primarily focused on investigating CP violation and rare decays of particles.
- CRISPR-Cas9 is a revolutionary gene-editing tool used in genetic engineering, not particle physics.
5. Which of the following statements best describes carbon fertilization?
a. Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
b. Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
c. Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
d. Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about hr the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Answer: a. Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Explanation:
Carbon fertilization refers to the phenomenon where increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2) stimulate plant growth and productivity. As CO2 is a critical component of photosynthesis, higher concentrations of CO2 can enhance the rate of photosynthesis in plants, leading to increased biomass production. This effect has been observed in various studies and is considered one of the factors contributing to the greening of the Earth observed in some regions.
When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a- message to your office accordingly.
6. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following term best applies to the above scenario?
a. Border Gateway Protocol
b. Internet of Things
c. Internet Protocol
d. Virtual Private Network
Answer: b. Internet of Things
Explanation:
The scenario described involves various devices and systems interconnected through the internet, enabling them to communicate, exchange data, and perform automated actions without human intervention. This interconnected network of physical devices, vehicles, home appliances, and other items embedded with sensors, software, and connectivity is commonly referred to as the Internet of Things (IoT).
In the scenario:
- The smartphone, smart mirror, refrigerator, and car are all IoT-enabled devices.
- They communicate with each other and with online services to perform tasks such as controlling home appliances, monitoring weather, managing grocery inventory, and providing real-time traffic updates.
- These interconnected devices enhance efficiency, convenience, and automation in daily life activities.
7. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Let’s address each statement individually:
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
As of the last available information, this statement is incorrect. India is not among the top countries in the manufacturing of silicon wafers, which are essential for making solar cells. The global market for silicon wafer manufacturing is dominated by countries like China, the United States, and some European countries.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
This statement is somewhat misleading. While the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) does play a role in the process, it is not the sole determiner of solar power tariffs. SECI conducts auctions for solar projects, wherein the tariffs are determined through a competitive bidding process. However, the final tariffs are influenced by a variety of factors, including the cost of technology, the specifics of the project, and policy incentives. They are not unilaterally set by SECI.
Given these points, the correct answer is: d. Neither 1 nor 2
8. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were
a. Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
b. Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
c. Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
d. Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
Answer: d. Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
Explanation:
During the middle of the 18th century, the English East India Company primarily exported commodities like cotton, silk, saltpetre, and opium from Bengal. These were the major products that fueled the Company’s trade interests and economic activities in the region during that period.
9. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
a. Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
b. Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
c. Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
d. Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops
Answer: c. Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
Explanation:
The Champaran Satyagraha, led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1917, was significant because it marked the first time Gandhi used Satyagraha in India and it linked the struggles of Indian peasants with the broader Indian National Movement. The movement was a protest against the oppressive indigo plantation system imposed by British landlords in Champaran, Bihar. By mobilizing the local peasants and advocating for their rights, Gandhi demonstrated the power of nonviolent resistance and the potential for collective action against British colonial rule. The Champaran Satyagraha thus played a crucial role in integrating peasant grievances into the larger struggle for Indian independence.
10. Who among the following were the founders of the Hind Mazdoor Sabha established in 1948?
a. B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
b. Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Day al Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
c. C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
d. Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
Answer: d. Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
Explanation:
The Hind Mazdoor Sabha was founded in 1948 by Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam, and G.G. Mehta. It was established as a trade union organization to advocate for the rights and interests of workers, particularly in the context of industrial labor.
11. With reference to the religious practices in India, the Sthanakvasi sect belongs to
a. Buddhism
b. Jainism
c. Vaishnavism
d. Shaivism
Answer: b. Jainism
Explanation:
The Sthanakvasi sect belongs to Jainism. They are a sub-sect of the Shvetambara tradition of Jainism, known for their strict adherence to non-violence (ahimsa) and ascetic practices. The term Sthanakvasi translates to those who remain in a place (Sthanak) and refers to their practice of not using temples for religious activities but instead conducting prayers and rituals in temporary places.
12. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements :
1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a. 1 only
13. Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?
a. Francois Bernier
b. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
c. Jean de Thevenot
d. Abbe Barthelemy Carre
Answer: b. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
Explanation:
Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, a French gem merchant and traveler, extensively discussed diamonds and diamond mines in his travel accounts. He traveled through India during the 17th century and documented his observations, including detailed descriptions of the diamond trade and mines in various regions of the Indian subcontinent.
14. With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?
a. Avalokiteshvara
b. Lokesvara
c. Maitreya
d. Padmapani
Answer: c. Maitreya
Explanation:
Maitreya is considered a future Buddha in Buddhist tradition, believed to be the successor to Gautama Buddha. According to Buddhist teachings, Maitreya will appear on Earth in the future, achieve enlightenment, and teach the dharma, ultimately saving the world. The concept of Maitreya is significant in various Buddhist traditions, including Mahayana and Vajrayana.
15. Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?
a. To maintain a large standing army at other’s expense
b. To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
c. To secure a fixed income for the Company
d. To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States
Answer: b. To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
Explanation:
The Subsidiary Alliance system, introduced by Lord Wellesley, aimed primarily at establishing British paramountcy over the Indian States rather than safeguarding India from Napoleonic danger. The system required Indian princely states to accept British protection, maintain a British resident in their courts, and to pay for the maintenance of British troops stationed within their territories. It effectively weakened the power of Indian rulers and increased British control over Indian affairs.
16. Consider the following statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a Leader of the Opposition was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
- In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was not the Swatantra Party; it was the Indian National Congress. The Swatantra Party emerged as a significant opposition party but was not the single largest opposition party in the first Lok Sabha.
- It is correct that in the Lok Sabha, a Leader of the Opposition was recognized for the first time in 1969.
- The statement regarding the minimum number of members required for a party’s leader to be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition is not accurate. There is no specific requirement in terms of the number of members for a party’s leader to hold the position of Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.
17. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 2 and 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In desert areas, plants have adapted to the harsh, dry environment in several ways to minimize water loss. Let’s go through the list:
- Hard and waxy leaves – True. A waxy coating on leaves, known as the cuticle, can help to reduce water loss by transpiration. This is a common adaptation in desert plants.
- Tiny leaves – True. Smaller leaves have less surface area for water to evaporate from, so having tiny leaves is another adaptation to reduce water loss.
- Thorns instead of leaves – True. Some desert plants, like cacti, have evolved to have thorns instead of leaves. Thorns provide protection and reduce the surface area from which water can be lost.
Each of these adaptations helps plants conserve water in arid environments. Therefore, all given adaptations are strategies used by desert plants to minimize water loss.
18. As per the NSSO 70th Round Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households, consider the following statements
1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
a. 2 and 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
Answer: d. 1 and 3 only
19. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
20. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
Let’s analyze each of the statements related to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India:
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
This statement is correct. The Parliament has the power to place laws in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution. Initially, the Ninth Schedule was created by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, to protect certain laws from judicial review on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
This statement is not entirely correct as it stands today. Originally, laws included in the Ninth Schedule were indeed beyond the scope of judicial review. However, in the landmark judgment of the Supreme Court in the I.R. Coelho case (2007), it was held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, could be subject to judicial review if they violate the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Thus, the absolute immunity for laws placed in the Ninth Schedule has been limited by this judgment.
Given these explanations, the correct response is: a. 1 only
21. Which one of the following best describes the term Merchant Discount Rate sometimes seen in news?
a. The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
b. The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
c. The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.
d. The incentive given by the Government, to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.
Answer: c. The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.
Explanation:
Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) refers to the fee charged by a bank or financial institution to a merchant for accepting payments from customers via debit or credit cards. It is essentially the cost incurred by the merchant for facilitating electronic transactions. The MDR is typically calculated as a percentage of the transaction value and is deducted from the payment received by the merchant. It covers various costs involved in processing card transactions, including interchange fees, network fees, and other service charges.
22. What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the `Nuclear Suppliers Group’?
1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
- When a country becomes a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG), it gains access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. The NSG is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment, and technology that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons. Membership in the NSG allows a country to participate in the global nuclear trade under certain guidelines and restrictions, thereby enabling access to advanced nuclear technologies for peaceful purposes.
- However, membership in the NSG does not automatically confer membership in The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT). The NPT is a separate international treaty aimed at preventing the spread of nuclear weapons and promoting disarmament. While many NSG members are also parties to the NPT, membership in one does not imply automatic membership in the other. Joining the NPT requires a separate decision and process.
23. With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a. 1 only
24. Consider the following statements
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- The first statement is correct. The FRBM Review Committee Report indeed recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general government by 2023, with 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
- The second statement is incorrect. The comparison of the Central Government’s domestic liabilities to the GDP of the State Governments is not explicitly mentioned in the report or widely discussed in fiscal policy discourse.
- The third statement is correct. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
25. Consider the following statements
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils a special case.
Which of two statements given above is/are correct
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
- The first statement is correct. In recent years, the quantity of imported edible oils has indeed surpassed domestic production. India heavily relies on imports to meet its edible oil demand.
- The second statement is incorrect. The Government of India does impose customs duties on imported edible oils to regulate imports and support domestic production. These duties are subject to change based on government policies and economic conditions.
26. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was
a. Aurobindo Ghosh
b. Bipin Chandra Pal
c. Lala Lajpat Rai
d. Motilal Nehru
Answer: c. Lala Lajpat Rai
Explanation:
The person described in the question is Lala Lajpat Rai. Here’s a breakdown of the details:
- Biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji, and Shrikrishna: Lala Lajpat Rai wrote biographies of several notable historical figures including Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji, and Shrikrishna. His writings were part of his efforts to inspire Indians with the stories of great leaders from history.
- Stayed in America for some time: Lala Lajpat Rai spent a significant amount of time in the United States where he was involved in activities concerning the Indian independence movement and promoting Hindu philosophy.
- Elected to the Central Assembly: Lala Lajpat Rai was indeed elected to the Central Legislative Assembly of British India.
Given these aspects of his life and work, the correct answer is: c. Lala Lajpat Rai
27. Consider the following statements :
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Let’s evaluate each statement provided regarding the Aadhaar card in India:
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
This statement is incorrect. Aadhaar card is not a proof of citizenship. It’s mainly used to verify a person’s identity and residence in India. It does not confirm whether a person is an Indian citizen.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
An Aadhaar number can indeed be deactivated or omitted by the UIDAI under certain circumstances. According to UIDAI’s policy, Aadhaar numbers may be deactivated for reasons such as discrepancies in the biometric data or demographic information, or failure to meet certain criteria set by UIDAI. Additionally, children who obtain Aadhaar have to update their biometrics when they turn 15, failing which the Aadhaar can be deactivated until updated.
Given this information, the correct answer is: d. Neither 1 nor 2
28. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. I and 3
Answer: d. I and 3
29. Rule of Law Index is released by which of the following?
a. Amnesty International
b. International Court of Justice
c. The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
d. World Justice Project
Answer: d. World Justice Project
Explanation:
The Rule of Law Index is released annually by the World Justice Project (WJP). It assesses how the rule of law is experienced and perceived in 128 countries worldwide. The index evaluates countries based on factors such as constraints on government powers, absence of corruption, open government, fundamental rights, order and security, regulatory enforcement, civil justice, and criminal justice. Therefore, option d. is the correct choice.
30. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
a. Indian banks’ Association
b. National Securities Depository Limited
c. National Payments Corporation of India
d. Reserve Bank of India
Answer: c. National Payments Corporation of India
Explanation:
The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is responsible for linking all the ATMs in India through its various payment systems and networks, including the National Financial Switch (NFS). The NFS enables interconnectivity between different banks’ ATMs across the country, allowing customers to access their accounts and perform transactions seamlessly. Therefore, option c. is the correct choice.
31. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
a. The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
b. The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
c. The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
d. The metallic money in circulation in a country
Answer: b. The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
Explanation:
Legal tender money refers to the currency issued by the government that is recognized by law as a valid means of payment for settling financial obligations. Option b. correctly describes legal tender money because it implies that creditors are legally obliged to accept this form of money as payment for debts or claims. Refusal to accept legal tender money could result in legal consequences.
32. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then
a. the opportunity cost is zero.
b. the opportunity cost is ignored.
c. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
d. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
Answer: d. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
33. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if
a. industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
b. agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
c. poverty and unemployment increase.
d. imports grow faster than exports.
Answer: c. poverty and unemployment increase.
Explanation:
Economic development is a multidimensional concept that encompasses various aspects beyond just the increase in absolute and per capita real Gross National Product (GNP). While economic growth, as indicated by increases in GNP, is essential for development, it is not sufficient on its own. Economic development also involves improvements in living standards, reduction of poverty, inequality, and unemployment, as well as advancements in education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
If poverty and unemployment increase despite an increase in GNP, it indicates that the benefits of economic growth are not reaching the broader population. In such a scenario, the quality of life may not improve, and socio-economic disparities may widen, undermining the overall development efforts.
34. Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables
1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
3. accumulation of tangible wealth.
4. accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
Human capital formation refers to the process of increasing the knowledge, skills, and capacities of individuals within a country’s population. It involves investments in education, training, healthcare, and other factors that contribute to the development of human resources. Therefore, statement 2, which emphasizes increasing the knowledge, skill levels, and capacities of the people of the country, correctly explains human capital formation.
The other statements are not accurate:
- Human capital formation is not primarily about accumulating more capital but rather about enhancing human capabilities.
- Human capital formation does not directly relate to the accumulation of tangible wealth but rather to the development of human potential.
- While human capital can lead to the creation of intangible wealth such as innovation and creativity, statement 4 is not a central aspect of human capital formation.
35. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to
a. weak administrative machinery
b. illiteracy
c. high population density
d. high capital-output ratio
Answer: d. high capital-output ratio
Explanation:
A high capital-output ratio means that a large amount of capital is required to produce a unit of output. In economies with a high capital-output ratio, capital formation (investment in physical capital such as machinery, factories, etc.) may not lead to a significant increase in output because the existing capital stock is already relatively high compared to the level of output. In such situations, further investment may yield diminishing returns, resulting in lower productivity and limited growth in output despite increased capital formation.
36. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?
1. The territories called `Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
After the Santhal Uprising, the colonial government took several measures to prevent further unrest and to consolidate its control over the region. Two significant measures were:
- The creation of territories called ‘Santhal Parganas’: The British colonial administration established the Santhal Parganas as a separate administrative unit in 1855. This was done to provide a degree of autonomy to the Santhals and to address some of their grievances.
- Imposition of restrictions on land transfer: The colonial government made it illegal for Santhals to transfer land to non-Santhals. This measure was aimed at protecting the land rights of the Santhals and preventing exploitation by outsiders.
These measures were part of the British strategy to pacify the Santhals and maintain control over the region after the uprising.
37. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the
a. increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
b. growth in the number of Indian owned factories
c. commercialization of Indian agriculture
d. rapid increase in the urban population
Answer: c. commercialization of Indian agriculture
Explanation:
During the British rule in the 19th century, there was a significant shift in Indian agriculture towards commercialization. This was largely driven by the British colonial policies, such as the introduction of cash crops like indigo, cotton, and jute, and the imposition of land revenue systems like the Permanent Settlement and the Ryotwari System. These policies aimed to extract revenue from Indian agriculture for the benefit of the British Empire. As a result, many Indian farmers were compelled to shift from subsistence farming to cash crop cultivation, leading to the commercialization of agriculture.
38. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
a. the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
b. the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
c. Article 19 is suspended in that State.
d. the President can make laws relating to that State.
Answer: b. the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
Explanation:
According to Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, if the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried out in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, he can issue a proclamation imposing President’s Rule in that state. When President’s Rule is imposed, the powers of the Legislature of that state are suspended, and the Parliament assumes the responsibility of making laws and functioning on behalf of the state.
39. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 only
d. 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
- Puthukkuli shawls – Tamil Nadu: Puthukkuli shawls are indeed a heritage craft of Tamil Nadu. These shawls are handwoven in Puthukkuli village near Kanyakumari and are known for their intricate designs and vibrant colors.
- Sujni embroidery – Maharashtra: Sujni embroidery is actually a heritage craft of Bihar, not Maharashtra. It is a form of quilting done by women in Bihar using simple running stitches to create intricate designs on quilts.
- Uppada Jamdani saris – Karnataka: Uppada Jamdani saris are not associated with Karnataka. They are a traditional handwoven textile from Uppada, a town in the East Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh.
40. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?
1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
GPS (Global Positioning System) technology is highly versatile and has numerous applications across various sectors. Here is an explanation of how it applies to the listed areas:
- Mobile phone operations – GPS technology is extensively used in mobile phones for various purposes including navigation, location tracking, and geographic tagging of photographs. This enables users to obtain directions, track their location, and use numerous location-based services.
- Banking operations – GPS technology is also used in banking operations, particularly in security and compliance areas. For instance, GPS can help in tracking the location of transactions, which can be important for preventing and investigating fraud. It also aids in regulatory compliance by verifying the geographical location of banking activities.
- Controlling the power grids – GPS is crucial in the management and operation of power grids. It provides precise timing needed for time-stamping transactions and for synchronizing the operations of different parts of the grid. This synchronization is essential for maintaining the reliability and efficiency of the power distribution system.
Given these applications, GPS technology is indeed used across all the areas mentioned. Therefore, the correct answer is: d. 1, 2 and 3
GPS’s versatility extends beyond simple navigation to include important roles in communications, financial security, and infrastructure management. This wide-ranging applicability highlights its importance in modern technological applications.
41. Consider the following statements:
1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities: This statement is incorrect. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages and services both Government of India Securities as well as State Government Securities. These securities are issued by the respective governments to meet their borrowing requirements, and the RBI acts as the central bank responsible for their management and servicing.
- Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments: This statement is correct. Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term debt instruments issued by the central government to meet its short-term financing needs. While the central government issues T-bills, state governments typically issue state development loans (SDLs) to fulfill their borrowing requirements.
- Treasury bills are issued at a discount from the par value: This statement is correct. Treasury bills are typically issued at a discount from their face value, and the difference between the face value and the discounted price represents the interest earned by the holder upon maturity. T-bills are issued for various tenures, such as 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days.
42. Consider the following statements:
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years: This statement is correct. The Earth’s magnetic field has indeed experienced reversals throughout its history. These geomagnetic reversals are evident in the rock record, where magnetic minerals align themselves with the prevailing magnetic field at the time of their formation. Reversals occur irregularly, with the last one occurring approximately 780,000 years ago.
- When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide: This statement is incorrect. The composition of the Earth’s atmosphere during its early history was primarily composed of gases emitted from volcanic activity, including water vapor, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and traces of other gases. The exact composition varied over time due to processes such as volcanic outgassing and chemical reactions with the Earth’s surface.
- When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth: This statement is correct. The emergence of photosynthetic organisms, such as cyanobacteria, significantly altered the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere. These organisms released oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis, gradually increasing the oxygen levels in the atmosphere and leading to the development of an oxygen-rich atmosphere, which was crucial for the evolution of aerobic organisms.
43. The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to
a. Exo-planets
b. Crypto-currency
c. Cyber attacks
d. Mini satellites
Answer: c. Cyber attacks
Explanation:
The terms WannaCry, Petya, and EternalBlue are all related to cyber attacks. These are names of malware and exploits that have been used in major cyber attacks in recent years.
- WannaCry: It is a ransomware attack that occurred in May 2017, targeting computers running the Microsoft Windows operating system. The malware encrypted files on the computer and demanded ransom payments in the form of Bitcoin cryptocurrency for their release.
- Petya: Another ransomware attack, similar to WannaCry, Petya emerged in June 2017. It also targeted Windows-based systems, encrypting files and demanding ransom payments.
- EternalBlue: This is an exploit developed by the U.S. National Security Agency (NSA) that was leaked by a hacking group known as the Shadow Brokers in April 2017. EternalBlue exploits a vulnerability in Microsoft’s implementation of the Server Message Block (SMB) protocol. It was used as part of the WannaCry and Petya attacks to spread malware across networks.
These cyber attacks had significant impacts on organizations and individuals worldwide, highlighting the importance of cybersecurity measures and the need for robust defenses against such threats.
44. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of Conservation Agriculture assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 2, 3, 4 and 5
c. 2, 4 and 5
d. 1, 2, 3 and 5
Answer: d. 1, 2, 3 and 5
45. The term sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of
a. Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
b. Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
c. Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
d. Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
Answer: d. Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
Explanation:
The term sixth mass extinction or sixth extinction refers to the ongoing extinction event that is currently happening on Earth, where species are disappearing at an accelerated rate. This extinction event is primarily attributed to human activities such as habitat destruction, overhunting, pollution, introduction of invasive species, and, significantly, global climate change.
Human activities have caused significant alterations to ecosystems worldwide, leading to the loss of biodiversity and threatening the survival of many species. Pollution, deforestation, overfishing, and the burning of fossil fuels have all contributed to habitat destruction and climate change, which are major drivers of the current extinction crisis.
This option is selected because it accurately describes the factors contributing to the sixth mass extinction as discussed in scientific literature and news reports.
46. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 and 2 only
47. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
a. Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
b. Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
c. N ainital (Uttarakhand)
d. Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Answer: a. Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
Explanation:
Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake, is an artificial, man-made lake located in the Kodaikanal city of Tamil Nadu. It was created in 1863 by Sir Vere Henry Levinge, a former District Collector of Madurai, who commissioned the marshy land to be converted into a lake. He stocked the lake with fish and brought boats into it, enhancing its suitability for recreational purposes.
The other lakes listed:
Kolleru Lake in Andhra Pradesh is a natural freshwater lake.
Nainital Lake in Uttarakhand is a natural freshwater lake situated in a tectonic basin.
Renuka Lake in Himachal Pradesh is also natural, considered the largest in the state.
Therefore, the correct answer is: a. Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
48. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
The Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is a key initiative aimed at providing skills training to the youth of India. Let’s evaluate each statement for its accuracy:
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
This statement is incorrect. PMKVY is not under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It is the flagship scheme under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). The aim is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
This statement is correct. PMKVY indeed includes training in various essential skills including soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial literacy, and digital literacy. This holistic approach is designed to equip the participants not only with technical skills but also with essential life skills.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
This statement is correct. One of the primary goals of PMKVY is to align the competencies of the millions of youth in India with the National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) to ensure that the training and skills are in accordance with the industry standards.
Considering the above evaluations, the correct statements are: c. 2 and 3 only
49. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to Swarajya Sabha?
a. All India Home Rule League
b. Hindu Mahasabha
c. South Indian Liberal Federation
d. The Servants of India Society
Answer: a. All India Home Rule League
Explanation:
The All India Home Rule League, founded by Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak, was established in 1916 with the aim of achieving self-government or Home Rule for India within the British Empire.
In 1920, the All India Home Rule League changed its name to Swarajya Sabha to emphasize its goal of attaining complete self-rule or Swaraj.
The change of name reflected the growing demand for full independence from British colonial rule among Indian nationalist leaders.
50. Which among the following events happened earliest?
a. Swami Dayanand established AryaSamaj.
b. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
c. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
d. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
Answer: b. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
Explanation:
- Neeldarpan, written by Dinabandhu Mitra, was published in 1860. The play is significant for its portrayal of the oppression faced by indigo farmers under the British colonial rule in Bengal during the Indigo Revolt.
- Swami Dayanand Saraswati established the Arya Samaj in 1875.
- Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath in 1882.
- Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination in 1863.