Topic’s Weightage
| Subjects | No. of questions |
| Ancient Indian History | 4 |
| Medieval Indian History | 2 |
| 1757-1947 | 8 |
| Economics | 16 |
| Geography | 15 |
| Environment | 14 |
| International Relations | 12 |
| Polity | 15 |
| Science & Technology | 10 |
| Current Affairs | 4 |
| Total | 100 |
51. With reference to cabinet mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It recommended a federal government.
2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. None
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
The Cabinet Mission of 1946 did recommend the formation of a federal government. It proposed a Union of India that was to be empowered to deal with foreign affairs, defense, and communications, but would have limited powers with all other powers resting in the provinces. However, the Cabinet Mission did not specifically address enlarging the powers of the Indian courts or providing for more Indians in the Indian Civil Service (ICS).
Thus, the Cabinet Mission focused on the political and constitutional means to transfer power from the British to Indian hands while ensuring a unified country and providing for a degree of provincial autonomy within a federal structure. It rejected the creation of a separate Pakistan and proposed a three-tier structure for governance, but the plan’s recommendation regarding the federal government is the only point relevant to the options given in the question.
52. Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?
a. Khangchendzonga National park
b. Nandadevi National Park
c. Neora Valley National Park
d. Namdapha National park
Answer: d. Namdapha National park
Explanation:
The Namdapha National Park is the one among the options provided that has a climate ranging from tropical to subtropical, temperate, and even arctic. This variety is due to the park’s vast range of elevations, which span from the lowland plains to the high mountain peaks. Namdapha National Park, located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India, is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and features extensive Dipterocarp forests. Its altitude varies from 200 meters to over 4500 meters above sea level, resulting in a diverse climate that supports a rich array of biodiversity, including numerous endemic and endangered species. The park is particularly noted for its extensive bamboo forests and secondary forests in addition to the primary forests, which change with increasing altitude.
53. Amnesty International is
a. an agency of the United Nations to help refugees of civil wars
b. a global Human Rights Movement
c. a non-governmental voluntary organization to help very poor people
d. an inter-governmental agency to cater to medical emergencies in war-ravaged regions
Answer: b. a global Human Rights Movement
Explanation:
Amnesty International is a global human rights movement known for its advocacy and campaigning to promote and defend human rights worldwide. It is a non-governmental organization (NGO) that operates independently of any government, political ideology, economic interest, or religion. Amnesty International investigates and exposes human rights abuses, campaigns for justice, freedom, and dignity for all people, and mobilizes individuals and communities to take action against human rights violations.
Founded in 1961, Amnesty International’s work encompasses various aspects of human rights, including political rights, civil liberties, economic rights, social rights, and cultural rights. The organization conducts research, publishes reports, organizes campaigns, and engages in advocacy to raise awareness about human rights violations and press for accountability and justice.
Source: Amnesty International official website
54. With reference to art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?
a. Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar
b. Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
c. Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram
d. Varaha Image at Udayagiri
Answer: b. Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
Explanation:
The Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli is the oldest, as it dates back to the 3rd century BCE, specifically to around 257 BCE. It was carved during the reign of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka, who ruled from 268 to 232 BCE. This artifact is significant because it is believed to represent Ashoka’s embrace of Buddhism after the bloody Kalinga War and is considered an important piece of Mauryan art for its naturalistic style. It differs from the formalism seen in other Mauryan art of that period and is symbolic of the emperor’s change of heart towards non-violence and dharma (righteous path).
As for the other options:
The Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar was built in the 11th century AD.
The Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram date back to the 7th century AD.
The Varaha Image at Udayagiri dates to the 5th century AD.
Therefore, based on the historical context and the dates associated with each of the artifacts, the Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli is the earliest.
55. With reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are the essential elementary elements of the feudal system?
1. A very strong centralized political authority and a very weak provincial or local political authority
2. Emergence of administrative structure based on control and possession of land
3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and. his overlord
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- A very strong centralized political authority and a very weak provincial or local political authority: This statement does not accurately reflect the essential elements of the feudal system. Feudalism is characterized by a decentralized political structure with power distributed among various lords or nobles rather than being centralized in one authority.
- Emergence of administrative structure based on control and possession of land: This statement is correct. In the feudal system, land was the primary source of wealth and power. Lords or nobles granted land to vassals in exchange for military service or other obligations. The administrative structure was organized around land ownership and control.
- Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and his overlord: This statement is also correct. Feudalism was based on a hierarchical system of lord-vassal relationships. Lords granted land to vassals, who in turn owed loyalty, military service, and other duties to their lords. This relationship formed the basis of social and political organization in feudal societies.
Therefore, option (b. 2 and 3 only is the correct choice as they accurately represent the essential elements of the feudal system.
56. ‘Bio Carbon Fund Initiative for Sustain-able Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
a. Asian Development Bank
b. International Monetary Fund
c. United Nations Environment Programme
d. World Bank
Answer: d. World Bank
Explanation:
The Bio Carbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is managed by the World Bank. The ISFL is a multilateral fund that supports efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, promote sustainable forest management, and enhance forest carbon stocks in developing countries. It aims to incentivize emission reductions through results-based payments and support countries in implementing REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) activities. The World Bank administers the ISFL on behalf of the countries and donors that contribute to the fund.
57. India is a member of which of the following?
1. Asia-Pacific economic corporation.
2. Association of South-East Asian Nations.
3. East Asia Summit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1, 2, and 3
d. India is a member of none of them
Answer: b. 3 only
Explanation:
- Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC.: India is not a member of APEC. APEC is a forum for promoting economic cooperation and trade among countries in the Asia-Pacific region. While India participates in APEC meetings as an observer, it is not a formal member.
- Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN): India is not a member of ASEAN. ASEAN is a regional intergovernmental organization comprising ten Southeast Asian countries, aimed at promoting economic, political, and cultural cooperation among its members.
- East Asia Summit (EAS): India is a member of the East Asia Summit. The EAS is a regional forum comprising 18 member countries, including the ten ASEAN member states and their dialogue partners, such as India, China, Japan, South Korea, Australia, New Zealand, Russia, and the United States. The EAS focuses on issues of strategic importance and security in the Asia-Pacific region.
Therefore, option 2, 3 only, is the correct choice.
58. In India the steel production industry requires the import of
a. saltpetre
b. rock phosphate
c. coking coal
d. All of the above
Answer: c. coking coal
Explanation:
- Saltpetre: Saltpetre, also known as potassium nitrate, is not typically required in the steel production industry. It is primarily used in fertilizer production and explosives manufacturing.
- Rock phosphate: Rock phosphate is not directly required in the steel production industry. It is mainly used as a raw material in the manufacturing of phosphatic fertilizers.
- Coking coal: Coking coal, also known as metallurgical coal, is an essential raw material in the steel production industry. It is used in the process of producing coke, which is a key ingredient in the steelmaking process. Coking coal undergoes destructive distillation in the absence of air to produce coke, which is then used as a fuel and reducing agent in blast furnaces to convert iron ore into molten iron (hot metal).
Therefore, option 3, coking coal, is the correct choice.
59. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to
a. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
b. determine the boundaries between states
c. determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
d. protect the interests of all the border States
Answer: a. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
Explanation:
- The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes: This statement is correct. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in certain states. It provides for the establishment of Tribal Advisory Councils to safeguard the interests of Scheduled Tribes. The Sixth Schedule relates to the administration of tribal areas in the northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It provides for the formation of autonomous district councils to protect the interests of tribal communities residing in these areas. (Source) (Source)
- Determine the boundaries between states: Determining the boundaries between states is not the purpose of the Fifth Schedule or Sixth Schedule. Boundary-related matters are dealt with separately under different provisions of the Constitution and through other administrative mechanisms.
- Determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats: The powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats are primarily determined by provisions related to Panchayati Raj institutions in Part IX of the Constitution, not the Fifth or Sixth Schedule.
- Protect the interests of all the border States: The Fifth and Sixth Schedules specifically focus on protecting the interests of Scheduled Tribes in certain areas and do not pertain to all border states.
Therefore, option 1, protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes, is the correct choice.
60. With reference to the Union Government consider the following statements.
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the Authorization from the Parliament of India
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: c. 2 only
Explanation:
- The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament: This statement is incorrect. The preparation of the Union Budget is primarily the responsibility of the Ministry of Finance, but within it, the Department of Economic Affairs plays the crucial role. The Department of Revenue is responsible for matters relating to levies and collection of direct and indirect taxes, not for preparing the Union Budget.
- No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India: This statement is correct. The Consolidated Fund of India is the most important of all government accounts. Revenues received by the government, loans raised by it, and also its receipts from recoveries of loans granted by it form part of this fund. Any withdrawal of funds from this account requires Parliamentary authorization as stipulated by the Constitution of India.
- All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the Authorization from the Parliament of India: This statement is incorrect. The Public Account is constituted under Article 266(2) of the Constitution. It includes transactions where the government is merely acting as a banker. Examples include provident funds, small savings collections, income of government set apart for expenditure on specific objects like road development, primary education, etc. Withdrawals from the Public Account do not require Parliamentary appropriation. However, the executive action is enough to withdraw money from the Public Account of India as these are not funds voted by Parliament.
Therefore, among the given statements, only statement 2 is correct, making the correct option 3. 2 only.
61. Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India
a. The President of India
b. The Prime Minister of India
c. The Lok Sabha Secretariat
d. The Supreme Court of India
Answer: d. The Supreme Court of India
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India acts as the custodian of the Constitution of India. It is responsible for upholding the Constitution, interpreting its provisions, and ensuring that laws passed by the Parliament and the State Legislatures adhere to the constitutional principles. As the highest judicial body in the country, the Supreme Court plays a crucial role in safeguarding the Constitution and protecting the fundamental rights of citizens
62. Consider the following statements:
1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996-97 to provide loan assistance to poor fanners.
2. The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974-75 for the development of water-use efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
- The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP): The statement is incorrect. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP) was launched in 1996-97 by the Government of India with the objective of providing loan assistance to states to accelerate the pace of irrigation development and achieve targets set under the Command Area Development Programme (CADP). It primarily aimed to enhance the pace of completion of ongoing irrigation projects rather than providing direct assistance to poor farmers.
- The Command Area Development Programme (CADP): The statement is correct. The Command Area Development Programme (CADP) was launched in 1974-75 by the Government of India with the aim of improving water-use efficiency and agricultural productivity in the command areas of major and medium irrigation projects. It focused on comprehensive development activities such as land leveling, soil conservation, drainage, water management, and agronomic practices to optimize the utilization of irrigation water and enhance agricultural yields.
Therefore, option b. 2 only is the correct choice.
63. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the
a. Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
b. Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
c. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
d. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
Answer: c. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Explanation:
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC. is constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. It is responsible for appraising proposals relating to the release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment. The committee evaluates the potential environmental risks and impacts associated with such releases and provides recommendations for their approval or rejection. GEAC plays a crucial role in regulating the use of biotechnology and genetically modified organisms (GMOs) in India to ensure environmental safety.
64. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants?
1. Bangladesh
2. Cambodia
3. China
4. Myanmar
5. Thailand
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 5
Answer: c. 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC. is an initiative by six countries to facilitate closer connections among the countries that are served by the Mekong and Ganga Rivers. The initiative aims at cooperation in tourism, culture, education, as well as transport and communications. The member countries of the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation are:
1. India
2. Thailand
3. Myanmar
4. Cambodia
5. Laos
6. Vietnam
From the list provided:
- Bangladesh (1) is not a part of the MGC. Although the Ganga River flows through Bangladesh, it is not one of the countries involved in this particular cooperation initiative.
- Cambodia (2) is a participant in the MGC, contributing with its connections to the Mekong River.
- China (3), despite its significant geographical share of the Mekong River, is not a part of the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation. The MGC focuses on the lower Mekong countries, excluding China.
- Myanmar (4) and Thailand (5) are both participants in the MGC, given their geographical proximity to both the Mekong and Ganga River regions through Myanmar’s cultural and historical ties to the Ganga basin and Thailand’s location along the Mekong River.
Therefore, the countries not participating in the MGC listed among the options are Bangladesh and China, making c. 1 and 3 the correct answer.
65. ‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often seen in the news, seeks to
a. develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity
b. improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management
c. reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a heavier burden on developed countries
d. transfer technology from developed Countries to poor countries to enable them to replace the use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with harmless chemicals
Answer: b. improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management
Explanation:
a. Developing national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity is the objective of the Convention on Biological Diversity, not Basel III.
c. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions and burden-sharing between developed and developing countries is typically addressed in climate change agreements like the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement, not Basel III.
d. The transfer of technology to replace the use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in refrigeration with harmless chemicals is related to environmental agreements such as the Montreal Protocol, not Basel III.
Basel III, on the other hand, is a global regulatory framework for banks established by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision. Its primary aim is to strengthen regulation, supervision, and risk management within the banking sector to enhance financial stability. Basel III introduces higher capital requirements, new liquidity standards, and additional measures to address risks and improve the resilience of banks to financial and economic stress. (Source)
Therefore, option b. is the correct choice for Basel III.
66. Consider the following statements
1. The winds which blow between 30o N and 60o S latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies.
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rams in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
- The westerlies blow all year round.
- The predominant winds, known as westerlies, originate in the west and move eastward. It moves between latitudes of 30°N–60°N and 30°S–60°S. Therefore, assertion 1 is untrue.
- Due to its origin in the high-pressure region of Horse latitude and its direction towards the subpolar low-pressure region, it is often referred to as the anti-trade winds.
- The winds that originate in the northern hemisphere and travel from the south west to the north east in the southern hemisphere.
- Because of the enormous ocean and very little land, the westerlies are stronger in the Southern Hemisphere.
- They are most visible between 40 and 60 degrees latitude, which are also known as the Roaring Forties, Furious Fifties, and Shrieking Sixties. The subpolar region exhibits fluctuations. As a result of the weather fluctuations, they cause wet spells.
67. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC.’,
Consider the following statements:
1. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills
2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
- It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills: This statement is incorrect. The Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC., now known as the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA., was established in 1997, not recently. It was formed with the objective of promoting regional cooperation and sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region. While issues such as piracy and oil spills may be addressed within the framework of IORA, they were not the sole reasons for its establishment.
- It is an alliance meant for maritime security only: This statement is incorrect. While maritime security is one aspect of cooperation within IORA, the association’s scope extends beyond maritime security to include various areas of cooperation such as trade facilitation, fisheries management, disaster risk reduction, academic and scientific cooperation, and cultural exchanges. IORA aims to enhance economic cooperation and sustainable development among its member states.
Therefore, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct. Option 4 is the correct choice.
68. Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?
a. Swadeshi Movement
b. Quit India Movement
c. Non-Cooperation Movement
d. Civil Disobedient Movement
Answer: a. Swadeshi Movement
Explanation:
The split in the Indian National Congress into the ‘Moderates’ and ‘Extremists’ factions was a significant event in the history of the Indian freedom struggle, and it occurred during the Surat Session of the Congress in 1907. This division was largely due to differences in ideology and methods between the two groups concerning the Swadeshi Movement, which began in 1905 in response to the British decision to partition Bengal.
- The Moderates, led by leaders like Gopal Krishna Gokhale, believed in gradual reforms, petitioning the British government for concessions, and working within the framework of British law. They sought to achieve their goals through dialogue, persuasion, and constitutional means.
- The Extremists or the ‘radicals’, led by leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, and Bipin Chandra Pal, advocated for more direct forms of protest and resistance. They were instrumental in promoting the Swadeshi Movement, which called for the boycott of British goods and the revival of domestic products and industries. The Extremists believed in self-reliance (Swadeshi) and were more aggressive in their approach to achieving self-government.
The Swadeshi Movement was a direct cause of the split, as it intensified the ideological rift between those who believed in moderate methods and those who advocated for more radical, assertive forms of protest to gain independence.
69. In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living tree into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes these bridges become stronger. These unique ‘Living Root Bridges’ are found in
a. Meghalaya
b. Himachal Pradesh
c. Jharkhand
d. Tamil Nadu
Answer: a. Meghalaya
Explanation:
- Meghalaya: Living Root Bridges are a unique feature found in the northeastern Indian state of Meghalaya, particularly in the Khasi and Jaintia Hills regions. Local tribes, such as the Khasi and Jaintia communities, have practiced the traditional art of growing living root bridges for centuries. These bridges are created by training the roots of the Ficus elastica tree, also known as the rubber tree, to grow across streams or rivers. Over time, the roots strengthen and interweave, forming a natural and robust bridge that can support the weight of people crossing it. These living root bridges are not only functional but also environmentally sustainable, as they are made from living trees and do not require the felling of trees or the use of artificial materials. (Source)
- Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Tamil Nadu: Living Root Bridges are not found in these states. While these states may have other unique natural features and cultural practices, the tradition of building living root bridges is specific to the Meghalaya region in northeastern India.
Therefore, option 1, Meghalaya, is the correct choice.
70. Tides occur in oceans and seas due to which of the following?
1. Gravitational Force of the Sun
2. Gravitational Force of the Moon
3. Gravitational Force of the Earth
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
Tides occur in oceans and seas due to the gravitational forces of the Sun, the Moon, and the Earth. These gravitational forces exerted by celestial bodies interact with the Earth’s oceans, causing the water level to rise and fall cyclically, leading to the phenomenon of tides.
- Gravitational Force of the Sun: The gravitational force of the Sun contributes to the occurrence of tides, albeit to a lesser extent compared to the Moon. The Sun’s gravitational force influences tidal patterns, especially during spring tides and neap tides. (Source)
- Gravitational Force of the Moon: The gravitational force of the Moon is the primary driver of tides on Earth. The Moon’s gravitational pull causes the ocean waters to bulge towards it, resulting in high tides. As the Earth rotates, the location of the bulge changes, leading to the occurrence of high and low tides. (Source)
- Gravitational Force of the Earth: The gravitational force of the Earth also plays a role in the generation of tides. The gravitational force of the Earth helps anchor the water in the oceans and seas, influencing the magnitude and direction of tidal movements. (Source)
Therefore, all three gravitational forces – of the Sun, the Moon, and the Earth – contribute to the occurrence of tides in oceans and seas. Option 4 is the correct choice.
71. In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used?
1. Assessment of crop productivity
2. Locating ground water resources
3. Mineral exploration
4. Telecommunications
5. Traffic studies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 4 and 5 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: a. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Assessment of crop productivity: Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites are extensively used for monitoring and assessing crop productivity. They provide valuable data on various agricultural parameters such as crop health, land use, and crop acreage estimation, which are crucial for crop monitoring and management.
- Locating groundwater resources: IRS satellites are used to locate and map groundwater resources. Remote sensing data, especially from satellites equipped with sensors capable of detecting changes in soil moisture and surface water, can help identify potential groundwater recharge areas and assess groundwater availability.
- Mineral exploration: IRS satellites play a significant role in mineral exploration by providing high-resolution imagery and multispectral data that can be used to identify geological structures, mineral deposits, and alteration zones. Remote sensing techniques are commonly employed in geological mapping and mineral exploration activities.
- Telecommunications: IRS satellites are not primarily used for telecommunications. They are Earth observation satellites designed to capture images and data of the Earth’s surface, atmosphere, and oceans. While satellite communication is a separate domain, IRS satellites are not typically used for telecommunications purposes.
- Traffic studies: IRS satellites are not commonly used for traffic studies. Traffic studies typically involve the collection and analysis of data related to vehicle movement, congestion, and transportation infrastructure, which are not the primary focus of IRS satellites.
Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 accurately describe the activities for which Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites are commonly used. Option 1 is the correct choice.
72. Consider the following States:
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram
In which of the following states do Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests occur?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
1. Arunachal Pradesh: This state, located in the northeastern part of India, experiences a wide range of climatic conditions, from alpine in the higher altitudes to tropical in the valleys. It is well-known for its rich biodiversity and dense forests, including Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests, especially in the lower altitudes where the climate is warmer and receives high rainfall. This makes Arunachal Pradesh an ideal location for Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests.
2. Himachal Pradesh: This state is located in the northern part of India and is characterized by a predominantly mountainous terrain. The climate varies from semi-tropical to semi-arctic. However, Himachal Pradesh is more known for its temperate and alpine forests due to its higher altitudes. The state does not typically feature Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests, which thrive in regions with more uniformly high temperatures and abundant rainfall throughout the year.
3. Mizoram: Mizoram, another state in the northeastern part of India, also has a climate that supports Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests, particularly because of its high humidity and rainfall. The state’s geography includes hills and valleys that receive a significant amount of rainfall, facilitating the growth of dense forests, including Tropical Wet Evergreen varieties.
Thus, Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests are found in Arunachal Pradesh (1) and Mizoram (3), making option 3. 1 and 3 only the correct choice.
73. The term ‘IndARC’ sometimes seen in the news, is the name of?
a. an indigenously developed radar system inducted into Indian Defence
b. India’s satellite to provide services to the countries of Indian Ocean Rim
c. a scientific establishment set up by India in Antarctic region
d. India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region
Answer: d. India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region
Explanation:
- An indigenously developed radar system inducted into Indian Defence: This statement is incorrect. IndARC is not related to a radar system for the Indian Defence.
- India’s satellite to provide services to the countries of the Indian Ocean Rim: This statement is incorrect. IndARC is not related to a satellite providing services to the Indian Ocean Rim countries.
- A scientific establishment set up by India in the Antarctic region: This statement is incorrect. IndARC does not refer to a scientific establishment in the Antarctic region.
- India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region: This statement is correct. IndARC stands for the Indian Arctic Observatory project. It involves the establishment of India’s first underwater observatory in the Arctic region to study various aspects of the region’s environment, including oceanography, marine biodiversity, climate change, and its impact. The observatory aims to enhance India’s scientific presence and research capabilities in the Arctic region.
Therefore, option 4 is the correct choice
74. With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. it is global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples
2. it provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management
3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society, and indigenous peoples: This statement is correct. The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) is indeed a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society organizations, and indigenous peoples. Its aim is to reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+), promote sustainable forest management, and enhance forest carbon stocks in developing countries.
- It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists, and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management: This statement is incorrect. The primary focus of the Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) is not to provide financial aid for scientific forestry research. Instead, it assists countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing financial and technical assistance.
- It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance: This statement is correct. The main objective of the Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) is to assist developing countries in their efforts to reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+). It provides financial and technical assistance to these countries to develop and implement REDD+ strategies and initiatives.
Therefore, options 1 and 3 are correct. Option 3 is the correct choice.
75. Which one of the following was given classical language status recently?
a. Odia
b. Konkani
c. Bhojpuri
d. Assamese
Answer: a. Odia
Explanation:
- Odia: Odia was given classical language status recently. The Government of India declared Odia as a classical language on February 20, 2014. This decision was based on the recommendation of the Committee of Linguistic Experts constituted by the Ministry of Culture. Odia is one of the oldest languages of India, with a rich literary heritage spanning over a thousand years, making it deserving of the classical language status. (Source)
- Konkani: Konkani was granted classical language status by the Government of India in 2008, not recently. Konkani is spoken predominantly in the coastal regions of Goa, Karnataka, and Maharashtra.
- Bhojpuri: Bhojpuri has not been granted classical language status by the Government of India.
- Assamese: Assamese was also granted classical language status by the Government of India in 2013, not recently. Assamese is the official language of the state of Assam and is spoken by a significant population in Assam and neighboring states.
Therefore, option 1, Odia, is the correct choice, as it was given classical language status recently in 2014.
76. With reference to an organization known as ‘Birdlife International’ which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization.
3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Birdlife International is indeed a global partnership of conservation organizations, so statement 1 is correct.
- The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ did not originate from Birdlife International; it was introduced by Norman Myers, an English biologist, in a publication in 1988. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
- Birdlife International does identify sites known as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’ (IBAs), making statement 3 correct.
77. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
a. Syria
b. Jordan
c. Lebanon
d. Israel
Answer: b. Jordan
Explanation:
Among the listed countries in South-West Asia, Jordan does not have a coastline along the Mediterranean Sea. Syria, Lebanon, and Israel all have coastlines along the Mediterranean.
78. In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?
a. Tropical moist deciduous forest
b. Tropical rain forest
c. Tropical thorn scrub forest
d. Temperate forest with grasslands
Answer: a. Tropical moist deciduous forest
Explanation:
Teak (Tectona grandis) is a dominant tree species in India’s tropical moist deciduous forests. These forests are characterized by a mix of deciduous trees that shed their leaves during the dry season. Teak is well-adapted to the climate and soil conditions of these regions and thrives in areas with a pronounced dry season followed by heavy rainfall. These forests are found in various parts of India, including central and southern regions.
79. ‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action’ often seen in the news, is
a. a strategy to tackle the regional terrorism, an outcome of a meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization.
b. a plan of action for sustainable economic growth in the Asia-Pacific Region, an outcome of deliberations of the Asia-Pacific Economic Forum
c. an agenda for women’s empowerment, an outcome of a World Conference convened by the United Nations
d. a strategy to combat wildlife trafficking, a declaration of the East Asia Summit
Answer: c. an agenda for women’s empowerment, an outcome of a World Conference convened by the United Nations
Explanation:
The ‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action’ refers to an agenda for women’s empowerment, which was an outcome of the Fourth World Conference on Women convened by the United Nations in 1995. This landmark international agreement set strategic objectives and actions for the advancement of women and the achievement of gender equality in 12 critical areas of concern.
Therefore, the correct option is: c. an agenda for women’s empowerment, an outcome of a World Conference convened by the United Nations.
80. Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, than rain comes with thunder and lightning. But rain is soon over.
Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?
a. Savannah
b. Equatorial
c. Monsoon
d. Mediterranean
Answer: b. Equatorial
81. With reference to India economy, consider the following statements:
1. The rate of growth of real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) in India has indeed increased over the last decade. There has been nominal growth, with the GDP rising in absolute terms in rupee value. However, statement 1 is not accurate as the rate of growth of real GDP has not steadily increased; it has fluctuated. Real GDP growth takes into account inflation and is a more accurate measure of economic performance; it has varied year on year due to economic cycles and external factors.
Therefore, the correct answer is: b. 2 only
82. Consider the following statements:
1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
2. The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Neither of the statements is correct. The size of the State Legislative Council cannot be more than one-third of the State Legislative Assembly, and it cannot be less than 40 members. Furthermore, the Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the members of the Council, not nominated by the Governor. The Governor does nominate one-sixth of the members of the Legislative Council, but these are from among persons with special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, arts, cooperative movement, and social service.
The correct answer is: 4. Neither 1 nor 2
83. To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India is a provision made in the
a. Preamble of the Constitute
b. Directive Principles of State Policy
c. Fundamental Rights
d. Fundamental Duties
Answer: d. Fundamental Duties
Explanation:
The provision To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity, and Integrity of India is outlined in the Fundamental Duties of the citizens of India. Specifically, it is mentioned in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution, which was added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
Thus, the correct answer is: d. Fundamental Duties
84. Which one of the following is the best description of the term ecosystem?
a. A community of organisms interacting with one another
b. That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
c. A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live.
d. The flora and fauna of a geographical area.
Answer: c. A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live.
Explanation:
An ecosystem encompasses not only the living organisms within it but also the physical environment they inhabit and interact with. This includes factors such as soil, water, air, climate, and geological features. The interactions between the biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living) components of an ecosystem are essential for the functioning and stability of the system as a whole.
85. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
86. With reference to India economy, consider the following :
1. Bank rate
2. Open market operations
3. Public debt
4. Public revenue
Which of the above is/are component/components of Monetary Policy?
a. 1 only
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 3 and 4
Answer: c. 1 and 2
Explanation:
Components of Monetary Policy typically include tools like the bank rate and open market operations.
- The bank rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country (in India, the Reserve Bank of India. lends money to commercial banks. It is a tool used by central banks to control the money supply.
- Open market operations (OMOs) are the buying and selling of government securities in the open market in order to expand or contract the amount of money in the banking system.
Items 3 and 4, public debt and public revenue, are related to fiscal policy, which is different from monetary policy. Fiscal policy is concerned with government spending and taxation and is managed by the government, while monetary policy is concerned with the money supply and is typically managed by the central bank.
Therefore, the correct answer is option c. 1 and 2
87. Which reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct?
a. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
b. The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
c. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
d. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
Answer: c. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
Explanation:
Inflation in India, as in most countries, is managed through a combination of fiscal and monetary policies. While the Government of India plays a significant role in implementing fiscal policies such as taxation and government spending to control inflation, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is primarily responsible for monetary policy. The RBI regulates the money supply in the economy through various mechanisms, including controlling interest rates and managing liquidity in the banking system. One way to curb inflation is by reducing the money circulation or tightening the money supply, which the RBI can achieve through measures like increasing interest rates or reducing liquidity in the banking system.
88. Consider the following countries
1. China
2. France
3. India
4. Israel
5. Pakistan
Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
c. 2, 4 and 5 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: a. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
China and France are recognized as Nuclear Weapons States under the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT). India, Israel, and Pakistan are not signatories to the NPT and are considered nuclear-armed states but are not officially recognized as Nuclear Weapons States under the treaty.
89. The ideal of Welfare State in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
a. Preamble
b. Directive Principles of State Policy
c. Fundamental Rights
d. Seventh Schedule
Answer: b. Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation:
The ideal of a Welfare State in the Indian Constitution is primarily enshrined in its Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are enumerated in Part IV (Articles 36-51). These principles provide guidelines to the state in matters of policy-making and governance and aim to establish social and economic justice, equality, and individual welfare. While the Preamble declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic, it does not explicitly mention the concept of a Welfare State. The Fundamental Rights (Part III) focus on protecting individual liberties, and the Seventh Schedule pertains to the division of powers between the Union and the States.
90. The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of
a. labour-augmenting technological progress
b. capital-augmenting technological progress
c. capital-reducing technological progress
d. None of the above
Answer: b. capital-augmenting technological progress
Explanation:
The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of capital-augmenting technological progress. This is because it directly increases the productivity of the capital (the plough) without necessarily increasing the amount of labor needed to operate it. Steel ploughs are more durable and effective at turning soil than wooden ploughs, making the capital more productive.
For a definitive source, you would typically refer to economic literature or educational resources on the topic of technological progress in agriculture, which discuss the impact of improved tools and machinery on production efficiency.
91. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
a. Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
b. Parliament can amend the constitution
c. Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
d. Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Answer: d. Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Explanation:
In a Parliamentary System of Government, the Council of Ministers (or Cabinet) is responsible to the lower house of the Parliament, which in India’s case is the Lok Sabha. This means that the Council of Ministers must have the support of the majority of members in the Lok Sabha to stay in power. If the Lok Sabha passes a vote of no confidence against the Council of Ministers, they are required to resign. This principle of executive accountability to the elected representatives in the Lok Sabha is a fundamental feature of the Parliamentary System in India.
92. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?
a. AIDS
b. Bird flu
c. Dengue
d. Swine flu
Answer: d. Swine flu
Explanation:
H1N1 virus, also known as the swine flu virus, is a type of influenza virus that commonly affects pigs. However, it can also infect humans, leading to respiratory illness similar to seasonal influenza. The H1N1 virus strain caused a global pandemic in 2009, resulting in widespread illness and fatalities.
93. With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements:
1.The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets is initiated by a fungal inoculum.
2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are released into the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
In the Bio-toilets used by Indian Railways, the decomposition of human waste is not initiated by a fungal inoculum but by a consortium of anaerobic bacteria. Additionally, the end products of the decomposition are not limited to ammonia and water vapor; methane and other gases are also produced in the process. This technology was developed jointly by Indian Railways and the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and is a part of the Swachh Bharat Mission aiming to enhance cleanliness and hygiene.
94. The problem of international liquidity is related to the non-availability of
a. goods and services
b. gold and silver
c. dollars and other hard currencies
d. exportable surplus
Answer: c. dollars and other hard currencies
Explanation:
The problem of international liquidity refers to the availability of currencies that are widely accepted in international trade and finance transactions. This typically includes major currencies such as the US dollar, euro, Japanese yen, and British pound, among others. International liquidity is essential for facilitating global trade, investment, and financial transactions.
95. With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity. consider the following statements :
1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC)
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel in fuel cells, the only by-products produced are heat and water. This is because the chemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen in the fuel cell produces electricity, heat, and water as by-products.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Fuel cells can indeed be used for powering buildings, but they can also be used for a variety of applications, including small devices like laptop computers, mobile phones, and other portable electronic devices. In fact, there are ongoing efforts to develop miniaturized fuel cells for such applications.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Fuel cells typically produce electricity in the form of Direct Current (DC., not Alternating Current (AC.. However, the DC output from fuel cells can be converted into AC using inverters for compatibility with AC-powered devices.
96. Kalamkari painting refers to
a. a hand-painted cotton textile in South India
b. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North-East India
c. a block-painted woollen cloth in Western Himalayan region of India
d. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India
Answer: a. a hand-painted cotton textile in South India
Explanation:
Kalamkari is a traditional Indian art form that involves hand-painting or block-printing on cotton textiles. The word Kalamkari is derived from the Persian words kalam (pen) and kari (craftsmanship), reflecting the intricate pen work involved in this art form. Kalamkari paintings typically depict mythological themes, religious motifs, and nature-inspired designs. This art form has been practiced for centuries in various regions of South India, including Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
97. Which one of the following best describes the main objective of ‘Seed Village Concept?
a. Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm seeds and discouraging them to buy the seeds from others
b. Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost
c. Earmarking some villages exclusively for the production of certified seeds
d. Identifying the entrepreneurs in village and providing them technology and finance to set up seed companies
Answer: b. Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost
Explanation:
The main objective of the ‘Seed Village Concept’ is to empower farmers by involving them in training programs for quality seed production. This initiative aims to enhance the availability of high-quality seeds to farmers at the right time and at an affordable cost, thereby contributing to agricultural productivity and sustainability. By engaging farmers in seed production and providing them with the necessary training and support, the Seed Village Concept helps promote self-reliance in seed procurement and reduces dependency on external seed sources.
98. There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Expanding industries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 only
d. 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: a. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Reducing revenue expenditure: One way for the government to reduce the deficit is by cutting down on unnecessary or non-essential expenses under revenue expenditure. This may involve streamlining government operations, reducing administrative costs, and optimizing spending on public services.
- Rationalizing subsidies: Another approach to reducing the deficit is by rationalizing subsidies. This entails targeting subsidies to those who need them the most while eliminating or reducing subsidies that are inefficient or benefitting wealthier sections of society disproportionately.
- Introducing new welfare schemes and 4. Expanding industries are unlikely to directly reduce the deficit and might even contribute to it in the short term due to increased expenditure or potential revenue loss without corresponding increases in revenue.
99. Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status?
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
3. Tirupathi Laddu
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 only 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 only 3 only
Explanation:
Items 1 and 3, Banaras Brocades and Sarees and Tirupathi Laddu, have been accorded Geographical Indication (GI) status. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma has not been mentioned as having this status. Therefore, the correct answer is (c. 1 and 3 only.
Banaras Brocades and Sarees are known for their intricate designs and use of zari or gold and silver threads. They received the GI tag in 2009. The Tirupathi Laddu, a prasadam offered at the Venkateswara Temple in Tirupathi, was also given GI status in 2014. The GI tag is a sign used on products with a specific geographical origin that possesses qualities or a reputation due to that origin.
100. With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA., which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
2. It is a Non – Banking Financial Company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 or 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
- Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA. is indeed a Public Limited Government Company. It was established by the Government of India in 1987 with the objective of promoting, developing, and extending financial assistance for renewable energy and energy efficiency projects.
- IREDA is also classified as a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC. As an NBFC, it primarily engages in the business of providing financial services similar to banks, but it does not hold a banking license. Instead, it focuses on financing activities related to renewable energy projects.