Topic’s Weightage
| Subjects | No. of questions |
| Ancient Indian History | 2 |
| 1757-1947 | 4 |
| Art & Culture | 13 |
| Economics | 10 |
| Geography | 17 |
| Environment | 20 |
| International Relations | 5 |
| Polity | 16 |
| Science & Technology | 6 |
| Biology | 7 |
| Total | 100 |
51. The terms `Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and `Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to
a. banking operations
b. communication networking
c. military strategies
d. supply and demand of agricultural products
Answer: a. banking operations
Explanation:
The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’ are used in relation to a. banking operations.
- The Marginal Standing Facility Rate (MSF) is an interest rate that banks may use to borrow funds from a country’s central bank in a situation of an acute cash shortage or acute regulatory pressure.
- Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) refer to the aggregate deposits held by a bank, which is a sum of demand and time deposits (like savings accounts, current accounts, and fixed deposits) of banks, used to determine reserve requirements such as Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
This information is typically covered in financial and economic news and reports relating to monetary policy and central banking functions.
52. What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?
1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.
2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
The correct answer is c. Both 1 and2. Business Correspondents (Bank Saathis) provide banking services in areas where setting up a brick and mortar branch may not be viable. They enable beneficiaries to avail various banking services, including but not limited to drawing their subsidies and social security benefits, and conducting basic banking transactions like deposits and withdrawals. This model helps in extending financial inclusion to underbanked and unbanked areas. For accurate details, you could refer to information provided by the Reserve Bank of India or financial inclusion policies of the government.
53. In the context of Indian economy, which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of `Statutory Reserve Requirements’?
1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create
2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid.
3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits.
4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The purposes of Statutory Reserve Requirements include:
1. Controlling the amount of advances banks can create, thus regulating money supply.
2. Ensuring safety and liquidity of people’s deposits.
3. Ensuring banks have sufficient vault cash for daily operations.
They are not specifically intended to restrict bank profits, but rather to maintain stability and confidence in the banking system. Thus, the answer is b. 1 and 2 only. For a detailed understanding, reference to financial or economic policy resources provided by the Reserve Bank of India would be beneficial.
54. Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as `Arab Spring’ originally started from
a. Egypt
b. Lebanon
c. Syria
d. Tunisia
Answer: d. Tunisia
Explanation:
The Arab Spring refers to a series of anti-government protests, uprisings, and revolutions that swept across several Arab countries in the Middle East and North Africa, starting in late 2010. The spark that ignited the Arab Spring occurred in Tunisia in December 2010 when a street vendor named Mohamed Bouazizi set himself on fire in protest against police harassment and humiliation. Bouazizi’s act of self-immolation was a response to the confiscation of his vegetable cart by Tunisian authorities.
Bouazizi’s self-immolation triggered mass protests and demonstrations across Tunisia, initially focusing on issues such as government corruption, unemployment, and lack of political freedoms. The protests quickly gained momentum, leading to widespread unrest and calls for the resignation of President Zine El Abidine Ben Ali, who had been in power for over two decades.
Ben Ali’s regime was eventually overthrown on January 14, 2011, when he fled the country to Saudi Arabia. The success of the Tunisian revolution inspired similar protests and uprisings in other Arab countries, including Egypt, Libya, Syria, Yemen, and Bahrain, marking the beginning of the Arab Spring.
55. Consider the following countries:
1. Denmark
2. Japan
3. Russian Federation
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America
Which of the above are the members of the `Arctic Council’?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 4 and 5
d. 1, 3 and 5
Answer: d. 1, 3 and 5
Explanation:
The Arctic Council is an intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation among the Arctic States and the communities living in the Arctic region. The member countries of the Arctic Council are Canada, Denmark (including Greenland and the Faroe Islands), Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden, and the United States of America. Japan is not a member of the Arctic Council but is one of the observer states. The United Kingdom, while involved in Arctic affairs, is also not a member but an observer.
56. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
1. Chechnya is indeed a region of the Russian Federation and has been a focus of conflict and news coverage.
2. Darfur is a region in Sudan, not Mali, and has been known for the Darfur conflict.
3. The Swat Valley is in Pakistan, not Iraq, and has also been in the news due to military operations against militants.
These regions have been in the news over the years due to various conflicts and humanitarian crises.
57. With reference to Agni – IV Missile, which of the following statements is / are correct ?
1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
- Agni-IV is indeed a surface-to-surface missile, which means it is launched from the ground and it targets locations on the ground.
- Agni-IV missile uses a two-stage propulsion system, which includes both solid and liquid propellants, not liquid only.
- The range of Agni-IV is approximately 4000 kilometers, not 7500 kilometers, and it is capable of carrying a one-tonne nuclear warhead.
58. With reference to two nonconventional energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following statements:
1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect because shale gas, like coalbed methane, is primarily composed of methane and can also contain other hydrocarbons including propane and butane; it is not a mixture of propane and butane only. Shale gas is extracted from shale formations, which are fine-grained sedimentary rocks that can be rich in organic material.
Statement 2 is incorrect because India has both coalbed methane and shale gas resources. Exploration and extraction efforts for these resources are ongoing in the country.
59. With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statements :
1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool.
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: b. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand: This statement is incorrect. The Changpa community primarily resides in the Ladakh region of the union territory of Ladakh, not in the state of Uttarakhand. They are pastoral nomads who inhabit the Changthang plateau, which spans across the border regions of India (Ladakh) and Tibet (China).
- They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool: This statement is correct. The Changpa community is renowned for rearing Pashmina goats, which produce the luxurious Pashmina wool. The fine wool obtained from these goats is highly prized for its softness, warmth, and quality, and is used in the production of Pashmina shawls and other textiles.
- They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes: This statement is correct. The Changpa community is recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in India. Scheduled Tribes (STs) are groups or communities that have been historically marginalized and are eligible for certain affirmative action measures by the government to improve their socio-economic conditions.
Therefore, the correct answer is b. 2 and 3 only.
60. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?
a. The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics
b. The gun made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas
c. The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of anti-histamines
d. It is a source of high quality biodiesel
Answer: b. The gun made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas
Explanation:
In recent years, the cultivation of cluster bean (Guar) in India has gained significance due to its use in the extraction of shale gas. Guar gum, derived from the seeds of the cluster bean plant, is a natural thickening agent and is used extensively in hydraulic fracturing, also known as fracking, in the shale gas industry.
During hydraulic fracturing, guar gum is mixed with water and other chemicals to create a slurry that is injected into shale rock formations at high pressure. This slurry helps to fracture the rock and release natural gas trapped within the shale. Guar gum improves the viscosity of the fracking fluid, allowing it to carry proppants (such as sand) into the fractures and hold them open, thus facilitating the extraction of shale gas.
This use of guar gum in hydraulic fracturing has led to increased demand for cluster bean cultivation in India and has become a significant source of income for farmers in regions where guar is grown.
61. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will
a. decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy
b. increase the tax collection of the Government
c. increase the investment expenditure in the economy
d. increase the total savings in the economy
Answer: c. increase the investment expenditure in the economy
Explanation:
When the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it becomes cheaper for businesses and individuals to borrow money from banks and other financial institutions. This reduction in the cost of borrowing encourages businesses to undertake more investment projects and individuals to make large purchases, such as homes or vehicles, financed by loans. As a result, there is an increase in investment expenditure in the economy.
This increase in investment expenditure can lead to various positive effects, such as stimulating economic growth, creating job opportunities, and boosting overall economic activity.
62. Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business: This statement is correct. According to Article 77(3) of the Indian Constitution, the President has the power to make rules for the allocation and transaction of the business of the Government of India among its ministers.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister: This statement is incorrect. While the Prime Minister is the head of the government and plays a significant role in decision-making, executive actions of the Government of India are generally taken in the name of the President, as per Article 77(1) of the Indian Constitution.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
63. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India: This statement is correct. The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention a No-Confidence Motion. Instead, the procedure for a No-Confidence Motion is derived from parliamentary conventions and rules.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only: This statement is also correct. A Motion of No-Confidence can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. If the motion is passed by a majority vote, it signifies that the majority of members in the Lok Sabha have lost confidence in the government.
Therefore, both statements are correct.
64. With reference to Need tree, consider the following statements:
1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.
3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
1. Neem oil as a pesticide: Neem oil has insecticidal properties and is commonly used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of various species of insects and mites. It acts as a natural repellent and disrupts the feeding and reproductive processes of pests, making it an effective and environmentally friendly alternative to synthetic pesticides.
2. Neem seeds in biofuels and detergents: Neem seeds contain oil, which can be extracted and used as a raw material in the manufacture of biofuels. Additionally, neem oil is used in the production of hospital detergents due to its antimicrobial properties. It helps in cleaning and disinfecting hospital surfaces effectively.
3. Neem oil in pharmaceuticals: Neem oil has various applications in the pharmaceutical industry. It is used in the formulation of various medicinal products such as creams, lotions, and ointments due to its antibacterial, antifungal, and anti-inflammatory properties. Neem oil is also used in traditional medicine systems for treating various ailments.
Therefore, all three statements are correct.
65. Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
a. Potential energy is released to form free energy
b. Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
c. Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
d. Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out
Answer: b. Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of glucose. This process occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells and involves several steps, including the absorption of light energy, the conversion of light energy into chemical energy, and the synthesis of glucose.
During photosynthesis, light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll molecules in the chloroplasts. This light energy is then used to drive a series of chemical reactions that convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. The chemical energy stored in the glucose molecule is potential energy that can be used by the plant for growth, metabolism, and other cellular processes.
Therefore, option b. Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored accurately describes the process involved in photosynthesis.
66. In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?
1. Iris scanning
2. Retinal scanning
3. Voice recognition
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Iris scanning: Iris scanning is a biometric identification method that uses the unique patterns in the iris of the eye to identify individuals. The iris has complex and unique patterns that can be scanned and used for identification purposes.
- Retinal scanning: Retinal scanning is another biometric identification method that uses the unique patterns of blood vessels in the retina at the back of the eye to identify individuals. Retinal patterns are highly unique and stable over time, making them suitable for biometric identification.
- Voice recognition: Voice recognition, also known as voice biometrics, is a technology that uses the unique characteristics of an individual’s voice for identification purposes. It analyzes various aspects of a person’s voice, such as pitch, tone, and pronunciation, to create a unique voiceprint that can be used for identification.
All three methods—iris scanning, retinal scanning, and voice recognition—are commonly used in biometric identification systems alongside fingerprint scanning.
67. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?
1. Vegetative propagation products clonal population.
2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.
3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
1. Vegetative propagation produces a clonal population: This statement is correct. Vegetative propagation involves the production of new plants from vegetative parts of a single parent plant, such as stems, leaves, or roots. Since these new plants are genetically identical to the parent plant, they form a clonal population.
2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating viruses: This statement is incorrect. While vegetative propagation can help in preserving the genetic traits of virus-free plants, it does not necessarily eliminate viruses. Viruses can still be transmitted through vegetative propagation if the parent plant is infected.
3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year: This statement is correct. Vegetative propagation can generally be practiced throughout the year, depending on the specific plant species and environmental conditions. Unlike sexual reproduction, which is often seasonally restricted, vegetative propagation allows for continuous plant propagation.
So, the correct answer is c. 1 and 3 only.
68. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
1. Cassini-Huygens: Cassini-Huygens was a spacecraft mission launched by NASA and ESA. It orbited Saturn and its moons, not Venus, and transmitted valuable data about Saturn and its moons back to Earth.
2. Messenger: Messenger was a NASA spacecraft mission that orbited Mercury from 2011 to 2015. Its primary purpose was to map and investigate the surface, composition, and magnetic field of Mercury.
3. Voyager 1 and 2: Voyager 1 and 2 are NASA spacecraft that were launched to explore the outer solar system. Both spacecraft conducted flybys of Jupiter and Saturn and continued their journey into the outer solar system, providing valuable data about the gas giants and their moons, as well as interstellar space beyond the solar system.
So, only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
69. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None
Answer: d. None
Explanation:
- Kinnaur: Kinnaur is a region in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India. While Kinnaur is known for its apple orchards, it is not particularly famous for the production of areca nut.
- Mewat: Mewat is a region in the states of Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh, India. It is primarily known for its agriculture, but mango production is not specifically associated with Mewat.
- Coromandel: The Coromandel Coast is a region along the eastern coast of India, particularly in the states of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. While soybean cultivation is widespread in India, the Coromandel Coast is not specifically known for soybean production.
Since none of the pairs are correctly matched, the correct answer is d. None.
70. Which of the following is/are the example /examples of chemical change?
1. Crystallization of sodium chloride.
2. Melting of ice
3. Sourcing of milk
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None
Answer: b. 3 only
Explanation:
Chemical changes involve the formation of new substances with different chemical properties. Let’s analyze each option:
1. Crystallization of sodium chloride: This process involves the formation of solid sodium chloride crystals from a saturated solution. It is a physical change rather than a chemical change because the chemical composition of the substance remains the same; only its physical state changes.
2. Melting of ice: Melting of ice involves a change in the physical state from solid to liquid. Like the crystallization of sodium chloride, it is also a physical change as it does not involve the formation of new substances.
3. Souring of milk: Souring of milk is a chemical change because it involves the conversion of lactose (a sugar in milk) into lactic acid by the action of bacteria. This results in a change in the chemical composition and properties of the milk.
So, only option 3 represents a chemical change.
71. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
a. advisory jurisdiction
b. appellate jurisdiction
c. original jurisdiction
d. writ jurisdiction
Answer: c. original jurisdiction
Explanation:
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India refers to its authority to hear and decide disputes directly, without them having been heard by a lower court first. Article 131 of the Indian Constitution grants the Supreme Court original jurisdiction to adjudicate disputes between the Government of India (the Centre) and one or more States, or between States themselves.
Source: Supreme Court of India – https://main.sci.gov.in/constitution/inde-constitution#131
72. Consider the following techniques/phenomena:
1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
3. Gene silencing
Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. None
Answer: b. 2 and 3
73. Consider the following statements :
1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
1, 2, and3. Maize is a versatile crop that has multiple uses across various industries:
1. Starch Production: Maize is a major source of starch, used in foods, textiles, paper, and pharmaceuticals.
2. Biodiesel Feedstock: The oil extracted from maize can be used to produce biodiesel, a renewable energy source.
3. Alcoholic Beverages: Maize is also used in the fermentation process to produce alcoholic beverages like beer and whiskey.
Each of these uses demonstrates the broad applicability of maize in industrial and food processes.
74. Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three ?
a. Crab
b. Mite
c. Scorpion
d. Spider
Answer: b. Mite
Explanation:
Crabs are crustaceans and belong to the phylum Arthropoda, class Crustacea. Mites, Scorpions, and Spiders, on the other hand, belong to the class Arachnida. Crustaceans and Arachnids are different classes within the phylum Arthropoda, distinguished by differences in body structure, the number of legs, and other physiological and anatomical features.
75. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
a. the President of India
b. the Parliament
c. the Chief Justice of India
d. the Law Commission
Answer: b. the Parliament
Explanation:
The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in the Parliament. The Parliament can pass a law to amend the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956, which determines the maximum number of judges that can be appointed to the Supreme Court.
Source: Supreme Court of India(Number of Judges) Act, 1956 – https://main.sci.gov.in/chief-justice-judges/supreme-court-judges/supreme-court-number-of-judges-act-1956
76. Consider the following towns of India:
1. Bhadrachalam
2. Chanderi
3. Kancheepuram
4. Karnal
Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees/fabric?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 3 and 4
Answer: b. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Bhadrachalam: Bhadrachalam, located in the Indian state of Telangana, is famous for its Sri Rama Navami festival and the Bhadrachalam sarees. However, the production of traditional sarees/fabric is not particularly well-known from this town.
- Chanderi: Chanderi, located in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh, is renowned for its Chanderi sarees, which are known for their lightweight texture and intricate traditional designs. Chanderi sarees are highly valued in the Indian textile industry.
- Kancheepuram: Kancheepuram, also known as Kanchipuram, is a town in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu famous for its handwoven silk sarees known as Kancheepuram sarees. These sarees are characterized by their rich colors, gold-threaded designs, and durability.
- Karnal: Karnal, located in the Indian state of Haryana, is not particularly known for the production of traditional sarees/fabric. It is more renowned for its agricultural and dairy industries.
So, only towns 2 (Chanderi) and 3 (Kancheepuram) are famous for the production of traditional sarees/fabric.
77. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None
Answer: d. None
78. Consider the following international agreements :
1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture.
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification.
3. The World Heritage Convention.
Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
79. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’ :
1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
1. Earth Hour is not an initiative solely of UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme) and UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization). While these organizations may support Earth Hour, it is primarily organized by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
2. Earth Hour is indeed a movement in which participants switch off non-essential lights for one hour on a certain day every year. This action symbolizes a commitment to take action on climate change and promote sustainability.
3. Earth Hour aims to raise awareness about climate change and the importance of environmental conservation. It encourages individuals, communities, and businesses to take steps to reduce their carbon footprint and promote sustainable practices.
So, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
80. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?
a. Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings.
b. Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings.
c. Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans.
d. Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms.
Answer: a. Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings.
Explanation:
In a marine food chain, diatoms, which are microscopic algae, are primary producers that convert sunlight into energy through photosynthesis. Crustaceans such as zooplankton feed on diatoms, and herrings, being small fish, feed on crustaceans. This sequence represents the flow of energy from producers to consumers in a typical marine ecosystem.
So, option a. is the correct sequence of the food chain.
81. What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?
1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.
3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b. 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
- Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation: This statement is correct. The Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (SSI) involves using single-bud settlings instead of conventional whole setts, resulting in reduced seed requirements and lower seed costs.
- Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this: This statement is correct. SSI encourages the use of drip irrigation, which can lead to efficient water usage and improved crop yield.
- There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this: This statement is incorrect. While SSI promotes reduced use of chemical fertilizers through better nutrient management practices, it does not completely eliminate their use.
- The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation: This statement is correct. SSI promotes intercropping with other crops, enhancing biodiversity and providing additional income opportunities for farmers.
So, the correct answer is b. 1, 2, and 4 only.
82. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?
a. Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.
b. The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilometers from the edge of the wetland.
c. The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed.
d. It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’.
Answer: a. Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.
Explanation:
The correct answer is a. Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.
When a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record,’ it implies that changes in its ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur due to human interference. This designation is a signal to the international community that the wetland is facing significant threats and requires urgent attention to address these issues and ensure its conservation.
83. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?
a. Andaman and Nicobar
b. Nicobar and Sumatra
c. Maldives and Lakshadweep
d. Sumatra and Java
Answer: a. Andaman and Nicobar
Explanation:
The Ten Degree Channel is a maritime channel that separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal, part of the Indian Ocean. This channel is named after the latitude line (10 degrees north of the equator) that approximately marks this division.
84. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None
Answer: d. None
Explanation:
The Drought-Prone Area Programme is typically under the Ministry of Rural Development, as is the National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas. The Desert Development Programme also generally falls under the purview of the Ministry of Rural Development, not the Ministry of Environment and Forests. These programs are aimed at addressing specific environmental and developmental issues in vulnerable regions, focusing on enhancing productivity, employment, and sustainable land and water management.
85. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements :
1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
2. It strives to conserve nature through action based research, education and public awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
1. Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) is not an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. It is an independent non-governmental organization (NGO) dedicated to the conservation of nature.
2. BNHS indeed strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education, and public awareness. It conducts various research projects, educational programs, and awareness campaigns to promote the conservation of biodiversity.
3. BNHS organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public to foster a deeper appreciation and understanding of nature.
So, statements 2 and 3 are correct, but statement 1 is incorrect.
86. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a. It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Cliamte Change’.
b. It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level.
c. It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment.
d. Both a. and b.
Answer: a. It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Cliamte Change’.
Explanation:
a. is correct. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) indeed serves as the financial mechanism for several international environmental conventions, including the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It provides financial support to developing countries to implement projects and programs that address global environmental issues such as biodiversity loss and climate change.
b. is incorrect. While the GEF supports various environmental projects and initiatives worldwide, it does not primarily undertake scientific research on environmental issues at a global level. Its focus is on financing projects and programs to address environmental challenges.
c. is incorrect. The GEF is not an agency under the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). It is an independent international financial organization established to address global environmental issues.
87. With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statements :
1. ‘Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates electricity by direct conservation of light into electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology that utilizes the Suns’s rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process.
2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).
3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 accurately describes the fundamental differences between Photovoltaics and Solar Thermal technologies. Photovoltaics directly convert sunlight into electricity using semiconductor materials, while Solar Thermal systems capture sunlight to produce heat, which can then be used to generate electricity, typically through a turbine. Statement 2 is incorrect because photovoltaic systems generate Direct Current (DC), which can be converted to Alternating Current (AC) for power supply, whereas Solar Thermal systems can generate either depending on the setup. Statement 3 is also incorrect; India has a growing manufacturing base for both Photovoltaic and Solar Thermal technologies.
88. Consider the following languages :
1. Gujarati
2. Kannada
3. Telugu
Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language/Languages’ by the Government?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Both Kannada and Telugu have been recognized by the Government of India as Classical Languages. Gujarati, however, has not been accorded this status. Classical language status is given based on several criteria, including a high antiquity of its early texts and recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
89. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Dampa Tiger Reserve is correctly located in Mizoram. However, Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is in Tripura, not Sikkim. Saramati Peak is correctly identified as being in Nagaland.
90. With reference to a conservation organization called ‘Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
Wetlands International is not an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to the Ramsar Convention, but rather an independent, global not-for-profit organization. It indeed works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, using practical experience to advocate for better policies, making statement 2 correct.
91. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements :
1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio De Janeiro in 2009.
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b. 2 only
92. Consider the following diseases :
1. Diphtheria
2. Chickenpox
3. Smallpox
Which of the above diseases has/ havebeen eradicated in India?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None
Answer: b. 3 only
Explanation:
- Diphtheria: Diphtheria has not been eradicated in India. It is still prevalent and vaccination against diphtheria is included in the routine immunization schedule.
- Chickenpox: Chickenpox has not been eradicated in India. It continues to be a common childhood illness, although vaccination against chickenpox is available.
- Smallpox: Smallpox has been eradicated worldwide, including in India. The last case of naturally occurring smallpox in India was reported in 1975, and the country was declared free of smallpox in 1977.
Source: World Health Organization(WHO) – https://www.who.int/health-topics/smallpox#tab=tab_1
93. Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?
1. Continental drift
2. Glacial cycles
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
- Continental drift: The movement of continents over geological time scales has had a profound impact on the distribution of landmasses and the formation of barriers to gene flow between populations. This isolation and subsequent mixing of different populations can drive genetic divergence and speciation, contributing to the evolution of organisms.
- Glacial cycles: Changes in climate associated with glacial cycles have influenced the distribution of habitats and ecosystems, as well as the availability of resources for organisms. These fluctuations in environmental conditions can drive adaptation and selection pressures, leading to evolutionary changes in populations over time.
Both continental drift and glacial cycles have played significant roles in shaping the evolutionary history of life on Earth by altering habitats, promoting isolation, and driving adaptation.
Source: National Center for Biotechnology Information(NCBI) – https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5658592/
94. Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?
1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers.
2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers.
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally.
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c. 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
- Construction of dams and barrages on rivers: This can disrupt the natural flow of rivers, fragmenting habitat and reducing the availability of suitable habitat for Ganges River Dolphins.
- Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally: Ganges River Dolphins are often unintentionally caught in fishing nets, leading to injury or death. This incidental capture can contribute to the decline in their population.
- Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers: Runoff from agricultural fields containing synthetic fertilizers and chemicals can lead to water pollution, affecting the quality of the habitat for Ganges River Dolphins and their prey species.
While option 2 (increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers) could potentially pose a threat to Ganges River Dolphins, it is not commonly cited as a significant factor contributing to their population decline.
Source: World Wildlife Fund(WWF) – https://www.worldwildlife.org/species/ganges-river-dolphin
95. The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to
a. solve the problem of minorities in India
b. give effect to the Independence Bill
c. delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
d. enquire into the riots in East Bengal
Answer: c. delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
Explanation:
The Radcliffe Committee, officially known as the Advisory Committee on Indian States Borders, was tasked with the crucial responsibility of demarcating the boundaries between India and Pakistan following the partition of British India in 1947.
96. Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use?
1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
There is concern about the use of brominated flame retardants due to two main reasons:
- They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment, leading to potential long-term accumulation in ecosystems and posing risks to environmental health.
- They have the ability to accumulate in humans and animals through exposure to contaminated air, water, or food sources, potentially leading to adverse health effects.
So, both factors contribute to the concerns surrounding the use of brominated flame retardants.
97. Consider the following:
1. Bats
2. Bears
3. Rodents
The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above.
Answer: c. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
All three kinds of animals listed – bats, bears, and rodents – are known to undergo hibernation.
- Bats: Many species of bats hibernate during the winter months to conserve energy when food is scarce.
- Bears: Bears are also known for hibernating during the winter. They enter a state of reduced metabolic activity to survive the cold months without food.
- Rodents: Some rodents, such as ground squirrels and marmots, also hibernate to survive harsh environmental conditions.
So, hibernation can indeed be observed in all the mentioned kinds of animals.
Source: National Park Service – https://www.nps.gov/articles/hibernation.htm
98. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
a. The Committee on Public Accounts
b. The Committee on Estimates
c. The Committee on Public Undertakings
d. The Committee on Petitions
Answer: b. The Committee on Estimates
Explanation:
The Committee on Estimates is the largest committee of the Parliament. It consists of 30 members from the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and 15 members from the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), making it a total of 45 members. This committee is responsible for examining the estimates included in the annual budget presented by the government.
99. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?
1. Volcanic action
2. Respiration
3. Photosynthesis
4. Decay of organic matter
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c. 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
- Volcanic action releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere through volcanic eruptions, contributing to the carbon cycle.
- Respiration by living organisms, including humans, animals, and plants, releases carbon dioxide as a byproduct, thus adding it to the carbon cycle.
- Photosynthesis, on the other hand, removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and incorporates it into organic matter, effectively reducing the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
- Decay of organic matter, such as dead plants and animals, releases carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere through the process of decomposition.
So, while options 1, 2, and 4 contribute to adding carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle, photosynthesis (option 3) actually removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
100. If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is / are such bird/birds?
1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 only
Answer: c. 2 and 3