Topic’s Weightage
| Subjects | No. of questions |
| Ancient Indian History | 2 |
| 1757-1947 | 4 |
| Art & Culture | 13 |
| Economics | 10 |
| Geography | 17 |
| Environment | 20 |
| International Relations | 5 |
| Polity | 16 |
| Science & Technology | 6 |
| Biology | 7 |
| Total | 100 |
1. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until
a. The First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended
b. King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911
c. Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement
d. The Partition of India is 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan
Answer: b. King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911
Explanation:
- The Partition of Bengal, implemented by Lord Curzon in 1905, sparked widespread protests and opposition from Indian nationalists.
- Due to intense opposition and political pressure, the British government decided to annul the partition.
- King George V announced the annulment of the partition during the Royal Durbar (court) held in Delhi in December 1911.
- The annulment of the partition was seen as a concession to Indian public opinion and an attempt to calm the growing unrest in the country.
2. The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the
a. Attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress
b. Attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress
c. Non-Cooperation Movement was launched
d. Decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken
Answer: b. Attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress
Explanation:
- The 1929 Session of the Indian National Congress, held in Lahore, is historically significant because it marked the adoption of Poorna Swaraj or complete independence as the goal of the Congress.
- On December 31, 1929, the Congress passed a resolution declaring that Poorna Swaraj was the objective of the Indian people, and January 26, 1930, was declared as the day of independence.
- This declaration laid the foundation for the Civil Disobedience Movement, which aimed to achieve complete independence from British rule through nonviolent means.
3. With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements:
1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.
2. It is a centuries – old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- Sattriya is indeed a combination of music, dance, and drama. It is a classical dance form that originated in the Indian state of Assam, particularly associated with the Vaishnavite monasteries or satras.
- Sattriya is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam. It was developed and nurtured within the Vaishnavite monastic institutions as a form of worship and storytelling, primarily depicting themes from the life of Lord Krishna.
- Sattriya is not based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir, and Mirabai. Instead, it has its own distinct repertoire of music and devotional compositions known as borgeets, which are composed by Assamese saint-scholars like Srimanta Sankardeva and Madhavdeva.
4. Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?
a. 22nd March (or 21st March)
b. 15th May (or 16th May)
c. 31st March (or 30th March)
d. 21st April (or 20th April)
Answer: a. 22nd March (or 21st March)
Explanation:
- Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era typically corresponds to the first day of the Hindu lunar month of Chaitra.
- Chaitra is the first month of the Hindu lunar calendar and usually begins around mid-March to mid-April in the Gregorian calendar.
- In a normal year of 365 days, Chaitra 1 usually falls on 22nd March (or occasionally 21st March) in the Gregorian calendar.
5. With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
6. The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a
a. revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco
b. nationalist organization operating from Singapore
c. militant organization with headquarters at Berlin
d. communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent
Answer: a. revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco
Explanation:
- The Ghadr (also spelled Ghadar) Party was a revolutionary organization founded by Indian expatriates in the United States, primarily in California.
- It was established in 1913 with the aim of liberating India from British rule through armed struggle.
- The Ghadr Party published a newspaper called The Ghadr, which propagated revolutionary ideas and inspired Indian nationalists.
- Although the Ghadr movement originated in the United States, it had branches and supporters in various countries, including Canada, Southeast Asia, and Europe.
7. With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?
a. It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India
b. It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in southern part of Coromandel area
c. It is an ancient form of dancedrama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar
d. It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India
Answer: d. It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India
Explanation:
- Kalaripayattu is an ancient martial art form that originated in the southern Indian state of Kerala.
- It is considered one of the oldest martial arts in the world and is known for its dynamic techniques, including strikes, kicks, grappling, and weaponry.
- Kalaripayattu also incorporates elements of yoga and Ayurveda, making it a holistic system of physical and mental training.
- Today, Kalaripayattu is practiced as both a martial art and a form of physical exercise, and it has gained recognition both within India and internationally.
8. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
1. Garba is a traditional dance form that originated in the state of Gujarat, India. It is usually performed during the Navaratri festival and is characterized by circular movements and rhythmic clapping.
2. Mohiniattam is a classical dance form that originated in the state of Kerala, not Odisha. It is known for its graceful movements and expressive storytelling.
3. Yakshagana is a traditional theater form that originated in the state of Karnataka, India. It combines dance, music, dialogue, and elaborate costumes to depict mythological stories.
9. With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Tabo Monastery is indeed located in the Spiti Valley of Himachal Pradesh. It is one of the oldest and most significant monasteries in the region, known for its ancient murals, sculptures, and Buddhist scriptures.
- Lhotsava Lhakhang is not located in the Zanskar Valley temple, Nako. It is a temple located in Lhalung village in the Spiti Valley.
- Alchi Temple Complex is located in the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir. It is famous for its ancient Buddhist murals, statues, and architecture, dating back to the 11th century.
10. Consider the following statements:
1. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.
2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
‘Bijak’ is actually a compilation of the teachings of Kabir, not Saint Dadu Dayal. Additionally, the Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Vallabhacharya, not Madhvacharya, who is associated with the dualistic philosophy known as Dvaita.
11. A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their
a. martial arts in North-East India
b. musical tradition in North- West India
c. classical vocal music in South India
d. pietra dura tradition in Central India
Answer: b. musical tradition in North- West India
Explanation:
- The object of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation of 1858 was to disclaim any intention to annex Indian States. The proclamation aimed to reassure the Indian princely states that their sovereignty and territories would be respected under British rule.
- Another objective of the proclamation was to place the Indian administration under the direct control of the British Crown. This marked the formal beginning of the British Raj, with the British government taking over the governance of India from the East India Company.
- The regulation of the East India Company’s trade with India was not a specific objective of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation of 1858. The proclamation focused more on political and administrative changes rather than trade regulations.
12. What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)?
1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States
2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown
3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- The object of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation of 1858 was to disclaim any intention to annex Indian States. The proclamation aimed to reassure the Indian princely states that their sovereignty and territories would be respected under British rule.
- Another objective of the proclamation was to place the Indian administration under the direct control of the British Crown. This marked the formal beginning of the British Raj, with the British government taking over the governance of India from the East India Company.
- The regulation of the East India Company’s trade with India was not a specific objective of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation of 1858. The proclamation focused more on political and administrative changes rather than trade regulations.
13. Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was
a. the mosque for the use of Royal Family
b. Akbar’s private prayer chamber
c. the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions
d. the room in which the nobles belonging to different religions gathered to discuss religious affairs.
Answer: c. the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions
Explanation:
- Ibadat Khana, also known as the House of Worship, was a building constructed by Emperor Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri, near Agra, India.
- It served as a meeting place for religious scholars and leaders of various faiths, where they engaged in discussions on religious matters.
- Akbar, known for his policy of religious tolerance and openness to diverse beliefs, initiated these discussions to foster religious harmony and understanding among different communities.
- The Ibadat Khana sessions played a significant role in the formulation of Akbar’s Din-i Ilahi (Divine Faith), which aimed to synthesize elements from various religions into a cohesive spiritual philosophy.
14. In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider/greater implementation?
1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.
3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 only
c. 2 and 3
d. None
Answer: b. 3 only
Explanation:
This is because India does have a National Seeds Policy in place, established in 2002, which has contributed to strengthening the seed sector through research and development, supply chain management, and quality assurance. Furthermore, the private sector actively participates in the seed supply, including providing quality seeds for vegetables and planting materials for horticultural crops. However, a constraint that does exist is the demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds, especially in the case of low value and high volume crops, which impacts the wider implementation of Seed Replacement Rates.
15. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) in India are notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change under the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986, not the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972. The purpose of declaring ESZs is to create a buffer zone around protected areas, like national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, and regulate activities around them to minimize the negative impacts on the environment. While some human activities are regulated or even prohibited to protect the delicate ecosystems, the statement that all human activities except agriculture are prohibited is not accurate. In ESZs, there are permitted, regulated, and prohibited activities, where agriculture is typically allowed to continue along with some other activities under specific conditions.
16. Consider the following statements:
1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
1. Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) is indeed established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, making statement 1 correct.
2. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body established under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, making statement 2 correct.
3. The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) was chaired by the Prime Minister. However, it was abolished in 2014, and its functions were transferred to the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation. Therefore, statement 3 was correct at one point, but it is not currently applicable.
17. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None
Answer: a. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
1. Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by symptoms such as bleeding gums, fatigue, and joint pain.
2. Vitamin D deficiency causes rickets, which is a condition characterized by soft and weak bones in children, leading to deformities such as bowed legs and knock knees.
3. Vitamin E deficiency does not cause night blindness. Night blindness is typically associated with vitamin A deficiency.
Source: The correct pairings of vitamin deficiency diseases can be found in various medical textbooks, nutritional science resources, or reputable online sources such as the World Health Organization (WHO) website or the National Institutes of Health (NIH) website.
18. There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?
1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil.
2. They can enter the food chains.
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Nanoparticles of certain chemical elements used in various industrial products can indeed accumulate in the environment, leading to contamination of water and soil. This can have detrimental effects on ecosystems and human health.
Nanoparticles can enter the food chains through various pathways, including uptake by plants or ingestion by animals. This can result in bioaccumulation and biomagnification of these nanoparticles, posing risks to organisms higher up in the food chain, including humans.
Nanoparticles have been found to trigger the production of free radicals in biological systems, which can lead to oxidative stress and damage to cells and tissues.
19. Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?
a. The International Monetary Fund
b. The United Nations Development Programme
c. The World Economic Forum
d. The World Bank
Answer: a. The International Monetary Fund
Explanation:
The ‘World Economic Outlook’ is a publication produced by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) which provides an assessment of the global economic situation and forecasts for the near and medium-term future.
It covers topics such as economic growth, inflation, fiscal policy, monetary policy, and various other aspects of the global economy.
20. With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?
1. Defence expenditure
2. Interest payments
3. Salaries and pensions
4. Subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. None
Answer: c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Non-Plan Expenditure refers to government spending that is not related to planned development activities. It includes recurring expenses such as salaries, pensions, interest payments, subsidies, and defense expenditure.
Defence expenditure, interest payments on loans and borrowings, salaries and pensions of government employees, and subsidies provided by the government are all part of Non-Plan Expenditure.
21. Which of the following have coral reefs?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Sunderbans
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: a. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Andaman and Nicobar Islands: These islands are known for their extensive coral reef ecosystems, which are among the most biodiverse in the world.
Gulf of Kachchh: The Gulf of Kachchh also hosts coral reefs, though they are less extensive compared to those in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Gulf of Mannar: The Gulf of Mannar, located between India and Sri Lanka, is renowned for its coral reefs and is a protected marine area.
Sunderbans, on the other hand, primarily consist of mangrove forests and do not have coral reefs.
22. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?
1. Terrace cultivation
2. Deforestation
3. Tropical Climate
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 only
Explanation:
Soil erosion in India is significantly influenced by deforestation. When trees are cut down, the soil is left without a root system to hold it in place and without a canopy to protect it from the elements. This can lead to increased water runoff and reduced soil fertility. Terrace cultivation, on the other hand, is actually a method used to prevent soil erosion on slopes by creating flat areas to retain water and soil. A tropical climate alone isn’t directly responsible for soil erosion; it is the management practices within these climates that can contribute to erosion if not properly implemented. Therefore, terrace cultivation and tropical climate are not correct in association with the problem of soil erosion.
23. The Seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of
a. Equatorial climate
b. Mediterranean climate
c. Monsoon climate
d. All of the above climates
Answer: c. Monsoon climate
Explanation:
The seasonal reversal of winds is a characteristic feature of the monsoon climate.
Monsoon winds are characterized by seasonal reversal, meaning the direction of the winds changes with the seasons.
In summer, monsoon winds blow from the sea towards the land, bringing heavy rainfall, while in winter, they blow from the land towards the sea, bringing dry conditions.
This seasonal reversal of winds is particularly pronounced in regions with monsoon climates, such as South Asia.
24. With reference to the cultural history of India, the term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to
a. an assembly of village elders
b. a religious sect
c. a style of temple construction
d. an administrative functionary
Answer: c. a style of temple construction
Explanation:
Panchayatan refers to a style of temple construction in India where the main shrine is surrounded by four subsidiary shrines at the four corners of a square or rectangular platform.
The main shrine typically houses the principal deity, while the subsidiary shrines contain smaller deities associated with the main deity.
This architectural style was prominent during the medieval period in Indian temple architecture.
25. Consider the following rivers:
1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri
Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
The correct answer to your question is b. 2 and 3 only, meaning the Lohit and Subansiri rivers flow through Arunachal Pradesh, while the Barak River does not.
The Barak River flows through the states of Manipur, Mizoram, and Assam in India before entering Bangladesh. It does not pass through Arunachal Pradesh. Its course includes a southwest flow in Manipur, turning northward at Tipaimukh, and then flowing west into the Cachar and Karimganj districts of Assam, eventually entering Bangladesh
26. Consider the following Pairs:
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 only
Explanation:
Harike Wetlands are indeed situated at the confluence of the Beas and Satluj/Sutlej rivers.
Keoladeo Ghana National Park (formerly known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary) is located near the confluence of the Banas and Chambal rivers, not the National Park Banas.
Kolleru Lake is located in Andhra Pradesh, but it is not at the confluence of the Musi and Krishna rivers. Instead, it is a freshwater lake located between the Krishna and Godavari deltas.
27. Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?
a. Mimamsa and Vedanta
b. Nyaya and Vaisheshika
c. Lokayata and Kapalika
d. Sankhya and Yoga
Answer: c. Lokayata and Kapalika
Explanation:
- Mimamsa and Vedanta belong to the Astika (orthodox) schools of Indian philosophy.
- Nyaya and Vaisheshika are also among the orthodox schools.
- Sankhya and Yoga are also considered part of the six systems of Indian philosophy, with Sankhya focusing on enumeration and Yoga on spiritual practice.
Lokayata and Kapalika, however, are not considered among the orthodox schools. Lokayata refers to materialism, and Kapalika is associated with a form of Shaivism that included extreme rituals. These are often categorized separately from the six classical systems of Indian philosophy.
28. Consider the following Pairs:
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 4
Answer: c. 3 and 4
Explanation:
- Cardamom Hills: These hills are located in the Western Ghats of southern India, primarily in southeastern Kerala, and they are known for the cultivation of cardamom, among other crops. This region does not lie along the Coromandel Coast, which is on the east coast of India, making the first pairing incorrect (Encyclopedia Britannica) .
- Kaimur Hills: The Kaimur Hills are situated in central India and do not border the Konkan Coast, which is located along the western coast of India. Thus, the second pairing is also incorrect.
- Mahadeo Hills: These hills are indeed located in Central India, making the third pairing correct. The Mahadeo Hills are part of the Satpura Range and are known for their rich biodiversity and significant cultural heritage .
- Mikir Hills: Now referred to as the Karbi Anglong hills, these hills are located in Northeast India. This region is home to a diverse range of flora and fauna, including several protected areas aimed at conserving endangered species. The fourth pairing is therefore correct.
29. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
a. Second Schedule
b. Fifth Schedule
c. Eighth Schedule
d. Tenth Schedule
Answer: d. Tenth Schedule
Explanation:
The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, also known as the Anti-Defection Law, contains provisions regarding the disqualification of members of Parliament and state legislatures on grounds of defection. It was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 to curb the practice of political defections, which undermines the stability of governments and the democratic process. The Tenth Schedule specifies the conditions under which a member of a legislative body can be disqualified for defection, including voluntarily giving up membership of a political party and voting or abstaining from voting contrary to the directives issued by the party leadership.
30. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of
a. biosphere reserves
b. botanical gardens
c. national parks
d. wildlife sanctuaries
Answer: a. biosphere reserves
Explanation:
Biosphere reserves are areas designated by UNESCO under its Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) to promote the conservation of biodiversity while also encouraging sustainable development and traditional human practices. These reserves aim to reconcile the conservation of biological and cultural diversity by integrating the protection of ecosystems with the sustainable use of natural resources. Biosphere reserves typically include core areas where biodiversity is strictly protected, buffer zones where sustainable activities are permitted, and transition zones where traditional human activities can continue with minimal impact on the environment.
31. Turkey is located between
a. Black Sea and Caspian Sea
b. Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
c. Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
d. Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
Answer: b. Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
Explanation:
Turkey is situated in a region known as Anatolia, which forms a bridge between Europe and Asia. Geographically, it is bordered by water bodies on three sides: the Black Sea to the north, the Mediterranean Sea to the south, and the Aegean Sea to the west. Therefore, Turkey is located between the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea.
32. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?
1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
3. Jakarta
4. Singapore
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
b. 3 – 2 – 4 – 1
c. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
d. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
Answer: c. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
Explanation:
- Jakarta: Jakarta is located in Indonesia and is situated more to the south compared to the other cities listed.
- Singapore: Singapore is located south of Peninsular Malaysia and is positioned north of Jakarta.
- Bangkok: Bangkok is the capital city of Thailand and is situated north of Singapore.
- Hanoi: Hanoi is the capital city of Vietnam and is located further north compared to Bangkok.
33. The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2°C above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3°C above the preindustrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?
1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source
2. Widespread coral mortality will occur
3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source: As global temperatures rise beyond 3°C above pre-industrial levels, terrestrial ecosystems may transition from being a carbon sink to a carbon source. This means that instead of absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, they could start releasing more carbon dioxide, exacerbating climate change.
- Widespread coral mortality will occur: Coral reefs are highly sensitive to changes in temperature, and a rise of more than 2°C could lead to widespread coral bleaching and mortality. This not only affects the biodiversity and ecosystems dependent on coral reefs but also impacts fisheries and tourism industries.
- All the global wetlands will permanently disappear: While global warming has adverse effects on wetlands, including loss of habitat and changes in water availability, it’s inaccurate to state that all global wetlands will permanently disappear solely due to a temperature increase beyond 3°C. While some wetlands may face severe degradation, others may adapt to the changing conditions.
- Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world: While climate change can certainly affect agricultural productivity, especially in regions prone to temperature extremes and water scarcity, it’s unlikely that cultivation of cereals will become impossible everywhere in the world solely due to a temperature increase beyond 3°C. Adaptation measures and technological innovations can help mitigate some of the impacts on agriculture.
34. The national motto of India, Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from
a. Katha Upanishad
b. Chandogya Upanishad
c. Aitareya Upanishad
d. Mundaka Upanishad
Answer: d. Mundaka Upanishad
Explanation:
Satyameva Jayate is taken from the Mundaka Upanishad, which is one of the ancient Hindu scriptures. It means Truth Alone Triumphs and was adopted as the national motto of India. This phrase is part of a mantra from the Mundaka Upanishad, embedded in the Atharva Veda, one of the four Vedas that form the basis of the Hindu philosophy. The motto is inscribed in the Devanagari script at the base of the Lion Capital of Ashoka, forming an integral part of the Indian national emblem since India became a republic on January 26, 1950.
35. In the constitution of India, promotionof international peace and security is included in the
a. Preamble to the Constitution
b. Directive Principles of State Policy
c. Fundamental Duties
d. Ninth Schedule
Answer: b. Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation:
Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for the central and state governments of India to frame laws and policies. One of the Directive Principles outlined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution specifically addresses the promotion of international peace and security. Article 51 states that it shall be the duty of the state to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations, foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
36. What are the benefits of implementing the Integrated Watershed Development Programme?
1. Prevention of soil runoff
2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers
3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table.
4. Regeneration of natural vegetation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c. 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
- Prevention of soil runoff: Integrated Watershed Development Programme (IWDP) aims to prevent soil erosion and runoff by implementing various soil and water conservation measures such as contour bunding, check dams, and vegetative cover. This helps in preserving soil fertility and reducing land degradation.
- Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers: While the integration of rivers is a significant goal in water resource management, it is not a direct benefit of the Integrated Watershed Development Programme. River linking projects involve larger-scale infrastructural interventions and are not typically associated with watershed development initiatives.
- Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table: IWDP promotes rainwater harvesting techniques such as construction of percolation tanks, farm ponds, and rooftop rainwater harvesting structures. By capturing rainwater, these methods help replenish groundwater levels, which is crucial for sustainable water supply and agricultural productivity.
- Regeneration of natural vegetation: One of the primary objectives of IWDP is to regenerate and conserve natural vegetation in degraded areas through afforestation, reforestation, and agroforestry practices. This helps in enhancing biodiversity, restoring ecological balance, and providing various ecosystem services.
37. Which of the following are associated with `Planning’ in India?
1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development.
5. The Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 5 only
b. 1, 3 and 4 only
c. 2 and 5 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: c. 2 and 5 only
Explanation:
- The National Development Council (NDC): It is an executive body that plays a critical role in the planning process of India. Established in August 1952, it aims to strengthen and mobilize the country’s effort and resources towards national development plans. The NDC is presided over by the Prime Minister and includes members such as Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of the states, and members of the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog). Its primary function is to approve five-year plans and policies for national development.
- The Parliament: It is involved in the planning process as it approves the five-year plans and the annual budgets presented by the government. The involvement of Parliament ensures that plans and policies undergo legislative scrutiny and receive the necessary sanction for implementation.
The other options listed, such as the Finance Commission, the Union Ministry of Rural Development, and the Union Ministry of Urban Development, though significant in their respective domains, are not directly associated with the national planning process in the context of approving five-year plans or overarching development policies. The Finance Commission, for example, is more focused on financial relations between the central government and the states, including the distribution of tax revenues.
38. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings.
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings: The Cabinet Secretariat assists in the preparation of the agenda for Cabinet meetings, ensuring that important matters are discussed and decisions are made effectively.
- Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees: The Cabinet Secretariat provides secretarial support to various Cabinet Committees, which are smaller groups formed to discuss specific issues in detail before presenting them to the full Cabinet for consideration.
- Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries: The allocation of financial resources to ministries is typically handled by the Ministry of Finance, not the Cabinet Secretariat.
Source: https://cabsec.gov.in/about-cabinet-secretariat/role-functions/
39. Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which
1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c. Both 1 and 2
40. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule.
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The discretionary powers of a Governor include:
- Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule.
- Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President of India.
Ministers are appointed by the Governor but on the advice of the Chief Minister, so it’s not a discretionary power. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government is generally carried out as per the rules laid down in the Constitution or by the State Legislature, and it’s not considered a discretionary power of the Governor.
Therefore, the correct answer is b. 1 and 3 only.
41. In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for
a. military officers
b. village headmen
c. specialists in vedic rituals
d. chiefs of craft guilds
Answer: b. village headmen
Explanation:
In medieval India, the designations Mahattara and Pattakila were used for village headmen. These individuals held significant administrative and leadership roles within their respective villages. They were responsible for various local governance matters, including the collection of revenue, maintenance of law and order, and representation of their villages’ interests to higher authorities.
Therefore, option b. village headmen is the correct answer.
42. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of
a. algae and bacteria
b. algae and fungi
c. bacteria and fungi
d. fungi and mosses
Answer: b. algae and fungi
Explanation:
Lichens are a unique symbiotic association between algae (usually green algae or cyanobacteria) and fungi. The algae provide photosynthetic capabilities, producing organic compounds, while the fungi provide structural support and protection. This mutualistic relationship allows lichens to colonize harsh environments, including bare rocks, and initiate ecological succession.
Therefore, option b. algae and fungi is the correct answer.
43. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
1. Oak: Oak trees are commonly found in the Himalayan region. Various species of oak, such as Quercus semecarpifolia (Himalayan oak) and Quercus leucotrichophora (Banj oak), thrive in the temperate and subalpine forests of the Himalayas.
2. Rhododendron: Rhododendrons are a prominent feature of the Himalayan landscape. They are well adapted to the diverse climatic conditions found in the region and are known for their colorful flowers. Several species of rhododendrons, including Rhododendron arboreum (Burans) and Rhododendron campanulatum, are native to the Himalayas.
3. Sandalwood: Sandalwood (Santalum album) is not typically found growing naturally in the Himalayas. It is more commonly associated with regions of southern India, particularly the Western Ghats.
Therefore, the correct answer is a. 1 and 2 only, as oak and rhododendron are plants that you are likely to see naturally growing in the Himalayas.
44. Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India?
1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1, 3 and 4 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
- Oxides of sulphur: The steel industry emits oxides of sulphur, primarily sulphur dioxide (SO2), during various processes such as the combustion of fuels and the smelting of ores. These emissions contribute to air pollution and can have adverse effects on human health and the environment.
- Oxides of nitrogen: Nitrogen oxides (NOx), including nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and nitric oxide (NO), are released by the steel industry through combustion processes, particularly during the operation of furnaces and boilers. NOx emissions contribute to air pollution and can lead to respiratory issues and the formation of smog.
- Carbon monoxide: Carbon monoxide (CO) is a byproduct of incomplete combustion in the steel industry. It is emitted during various processes such as the heating and melting of iron ore. CO is a harmful air pollutant that can cause health problems and is a precursor to the formation of ground-level ozone and fine particulate matter.
- Carbon dioxide: The steel industry is a significant source of carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions, mainly from the combustion of fossil fuels such as coal and natural gas for energy and heat. CO2 is a greenhouse gas that contributes to global warming and climate change.
These pollutants are released by the steel industry and can have detrimental effects on both human health and the environment.
45. Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?
1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 3 and 4
Answer: c. 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
The kingdoms that were associated with the life of the Buddha are Kosala and Magadha. Kosala was where the Buddha spent a significant amount of time teaching after his enlightenment, including in its capital, Shravasti, where he gave many discourses. Magadha was the kingdom in which the Buddha attained enlightenment under the Bodhi tree in Bodh Gaya. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 3 and 4 only. Avanti and Gandhara, while important kingdoms in ancient India, do not have the same direct association with the major events of the Buddha’s life and teachings.
46. Every year, a month long ecologically important campaign / festival is held during which certain communities / tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities / tribes?
a. Bhutia and Lepcha
b. Gond and Korku
c. Irula and Toda
d. Sahariya and Agariya
Answer: b. Gond and Korku
Explanation:
Every monsoon, the Gond and Korku tribes of Madhya Pradesh’s Betul and Harda districts celebrate Hari Jiroti. It is a month-long festival of greenery, during which the tribals plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees.
47. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a
a. tax imposed by the Central Government
b. tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government
c. tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government
d. tax imposed and collected by the State Government
Answer: d. tax imposed and collected by the State Government
Explanation:
Sales tax, including the tax paid while purchasing toothpaste, is typically a tax imposed and collected by the State Government. Sales tax is levied on the sale of goods within a particular state, and the rates may vary from state to state. The revenue generated from sales tax goes to the state government’s treasury and is used to fund various state-level programs and initiatives.
Here’s why option d. is correct:
a. Tax imposed by the Central Government: Sales tax is primarily a state-level tax, and it is not imposed by the Central Government.
b. Tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government: Sales tax is not imposed by the Central Government; therefore, it is not collected by the State Government on behalf of the Central Government.
c. Tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government: Sales tax is imposed and collected by the State Government itself; there is no involvement of the Central Government in its collection.
d. Tax imposed and collected by the State Government: This is the accurate description of sales tax. It is imposed by the State Government on the sale of goods within the state and collected by the state authorities.
48. What does venture capital mean?
a. A short-term capital provided to industries
b. A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs
c. Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses
d. Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries.
Answer: b. A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs
Explanation:
Venture capital refers to a type of financing provided to early-stage, high-potential, and growth-oriented start-up companies or small businesses that have the potential to generate significant returns for investors. Venture capital firms or investors typically take equity stakes in these companies in exchange for funding, and they often play an active role in guiding the company’s strategic direction and operations.
Here’s why option b. is correct:
a. Short-term capital provided to industries: Venture capital is not typically short-term financing; it’s more focused on long-term growth and success rather than immediate returns.
b. Long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs: This accurately describes the nature of venture capital. It involves providing funding to new or early-stage companies to help them grow and develop their businesses over the long term.
c. Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses: Venture capital is not provided to industries at times of losses; instead, it’s aimed at supporting innovative and high-potential ventures, often before they start generating profits.
d. Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries: Venture capital is not typically used for replacement or renovation of existing industries; it’s primarily focused on funding new ventures and fostering innovation.
49. The main objective of the 12th Five- Year Plan is
a. inclusive growth and poverty reduction.
b. inclusive and sustainable growth
c. sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment
d. faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth
Answer: d. faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.
Explanation:
The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan (2012-2017) of India was to achieve faster, sustainable, and more inclusive growth. This plan aimed to address various socio-economic challenges faced by the country and promote balanced development across different sectors while ensuring inclusivity and sustainability.
Here’s a breakdown of the objectives mentioned in the options:
a. Inclusive growth and poverty reduction: This objective focuses primarily on reducing poverty and ensuring that the benefits of economic growth are distributed equitably among all sections of society. While poverty reduction is an essential component of the plan, it doesn’t encompass the broader goals of sustainability and faster growth.
b. Inclusive and sustainable growth: This option aligns closely with the objectives of the 12th Five-Year Plan. However, it doesn’t explicitly mention the need for faster growth, which was also a key goal of the plan.
c. Sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment: While reducing unemployment is an important goal, it doesn’t capture the comprehensive objectives of the 12th Five-Year Plan, which encompassed various dimensions of development beyond just employment generation.
d. Faster, sustainable, and more inclusive growth: This option accurately reflects the multifaceted goals of the 12th Five-Year Plan, which aimed to achieve faster economic growth while ensuring sustainability and inclusivity. This option encompasses the broader objectives of the plan, including poverty reduction, employment generation, and balanced development across sectors.
50. With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes / constitute the Current Account?
1. Balance of trade
2. Foreign assets
3. Balance of invisibles
4. Special Drawing Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 4
Answer: c. 1 and 3
Explanation:
1. Balance of trade: The balance of trade is the difference between the value of a country’s exports and imports of goods. It is a component of the current account as it reflects the trade in goods with other countries.
2. Foreign assets: Foreign assets typically fall under the capital account of the balance of payments, not the current account. Foreign assets include foreign direct investment (FDI), portfolio investment, and other financial assets held by residents of a country in foreign countries.
3. Balance of invisibles: The balance of invisibles, also known as the balance of services, refers to the difference between receipts from and payments for services rendered between residents of a country and residents of other countries. It includes services such as tourism, transportation, insurance, and financial services. This is a component of the current account.
4. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): SDRs are international reserve assets created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and allocated to its member countries to supplement their official reserves. SDRs are not part of the current account; they are included in the capital account of the balance of payments.
Therefore, the correct options are 1 and 3.