Topic’s Weightage
| Section | No. of Questions |
| Quantitative Aptitude | 28 |
| Business Decision Making | 21 |
| Verbal Ability & Logical Reasoning | 26 |
| General Knowledge | 25 |
| Total | 100 |
Section 1 : Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation
| Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation | No. of Questions |
| Data Sufficiency | 2 |
| Profit & Loss | 5 |
| Distance & Speed | 1 |
| Logarithm | 1 |
| Mean | 1 |
| Time & Work | 1 |
| Quadratic Equation | 2 |
| Permutation & Combinations | 3 |
| Number System | 5 |
| Mensuration | 1 |
| Simplification | 1 |
| Median | 1 |
| Averages | 2 |
| Probability | 2 |
| Total | 28 |
1. In a small college, students are allowed to take only one specialization. Traditionally, only two specializations are offered: Science and Arts. Students enrolled to specialize in Science must take Physics and Mathematics subjects, while students enrolled to specialize in Arts must take Economics and Political Science subjects. Students enrolled in Science are not allowed to take either Economics or Political Science, while students enrolled in Arts are not allowed to take either Physics or Mathematics. Recently, the college has started a third specialization called MatEco that requires students to take Economics and Mathematics. However, MatEco students would not be allowed to take either Physics or Political Science. When the college opens this new specialization for enrolment, it allows students, originally enrolled in Science or Arts, to switch to MatEco.
From among the students originally enrolled in Arts, 20 students switch to MatEco. This makes the number of Science students twice the number of Arts students. After this, from among the students who originally enrolled in Science, 45 students switch to MatEco. This makes the number of Arts students twice the number of Science students.
In total, how many students, from among those originally enrolled in Science or Arts, are now taking Economics? (Data Sufficiency)
A. None of the remaining options is correct.
B. 95
C. 45
D. 65
E. 80
Answer: B. 95
Explanation:
Let $S$ be the number of students originally enrolled in Science, and $A$ be the number of students originally enrolled in Arts.
After 20 students from Arts switch to MatEco:
$$\text{Science students} = S,\quad \text{Arts students} = A – 20$$
We are told that:
$$S = 2(A – 20) \quad \text{(1)}$$
Then, 45 students from Science switch to MatEco:
$$\text{Remaining Science students} = S – 45,\quad \text{Arts students still} = A – 20$$
We are told that:
$$A – 20 = 2(S – 45) \quad \text{(2)}$$
Substitute equation (1) into equation (2):
$$
A – 20 = 2((2A – 40) – 45) \\
A – 20 = 2(2A – 85) \\
A – 20 = 4A – 170 \\
150 = 3A \Rightarrow A = 50
$$
Substitute back to find $S$:
$$S = 2(50) – 40 = 60$$
Now calculate the number of students currently taking Economics:
– Arts students remaining: $A – 20 = 30$ (they take Economics)
– MatEco students (who also take Economics):
– 20 from Arts
– 45 from Science
So the total number of students now taking Economics is:
$$30 + 20 + 45 = 95$$
Therefore, the total number of students, from among those originally enrolled in Science or Arts, who are now taking Economics is 95.
2. The cost of running a movie theatre is Rs. 10,000 per day, plus additional Rs. 5000 per show. The theatre has 200 seats. A new movie released on Friday. There were three shows, where the ticket price was Rs. 250 each for the first two shows and Rs. 200 for the late-night show.
For all shows together, total occupancy was 80%. What was the maximum amount of profit possible? (Profit & Loss)
A. Rs. 95,000
B. Rs. 87,000
C. Rs. 1,16,000
D. Rs. 91,000
E. Rs. 1,20,000
Answer: D. Rs. 91,000
Explanation:
The fixed cost of running the theatre per day is Rs. 10,000 and each show costs an additional Rs. 5,000. With 3 shows in a day, the total cost is:
$$\text{Total cost} = 10000 + 3 \times 5000 = 25000$$
The theatre has 200 seats, and there are 3 shows, so the total number of possible seatings is:
$$200 \times 3 = 600$$
Given that the overall occupancy is 80%, the total number of tickets sold is:
$$0.8 \times 600 = 480$$
Ticket prices:
– Rs. 250 for the first two shows
– Rs. 200 for the third (late-night) show
To maximize profit, we assume the maximum number of tickets were sold for the higher-priced shows. Each of the first two shows can have at most 200 tickets sold, so the maximum number of tickets at Rs. 250 is:
$$x = 2 \times 200 = 400,\quad y = 480 – 400 = 80$$
Now, calculate total revenue:
$$\text{Revenue} = 250 \times 400 + 200 \times 80 = 100000 + 16000 = 116000$$
Profit is:
$$\text{Profit} = 116000 – 25000 = 91000$$
Therefore, the maximum amount of profit possible is Rs. 91,000.
3. A flight, traveling to a destination 11,200 kms away, was supposed to take off at 6:30 AM. Due to bad weather, the departure of the flight got delayed by three hours. The pilot increased the average speed of the airplane by 100 km/hr from the initially planned average speed, to reduce the overall delay to one hour.
Had the pilot increased the average speed by 350 km/hr from the initially planned average speed, when would have the flight reached its destination? (Distance & Speed)
A. 11:30 PM
B. 5:10 PM
C. 8:10 PM
D. 10:36 PM
E. 7:50 PM
Answer: C. 8:10 PM
Explanation:
Let the originally planned average speed be $x$ km/hr. The total distance is 11200 km.
Planned time to reach destination:
$$\dfrac{11200}{x}$$
The flight is delayed by 3 hours. The pilot increases speed to $x + 100$ km/hr, and the total delay is only 1 hour. So:
$$\dfrac{11200}{x + 100} + 3 = \dfrac{11200}{x} + 1$$
Simplifying:
$$
\dfrac{11200}{x + 100} – \dfrac{11200}{x} = -2 \\
11200\left(\dfrac{1}{x + 100} – \dfrac{1}{x}\right) = -2 \\
11200\left(\dfrac{-100}{x(x + 100)}\right) = -2 \\
\dfrac{1120000}{x(x + 100)} = 2
$$
Now solve:
$$
2x(x + 100) = 1120000 \Rightarrow x(x + 100) = 560000 \\
x^2 + 100x – 560000 = 0
$$
Solving the quadratic:
$$x = \dfrac{-100 \pm \sqrt{100^2 + 4 \times 560000}}{2} = \dfrac{-100 \pm \sqrt{2250000}}{2} \\
x = \dfrac{-100 \pm 1500}{2}$$
Taking the positive root:
$$x = \dfrac{1400}{2} = 700$$
So, the originally planned speed was 700 km/hr.
If the pilot had increased the speed by 350 km/hr:
$$\text{New speed} = 700 + 350 = 1050 \text{ km/hr}$$
Time taken:
$$\dfrac{11200}{1050} \approx 10.6667 \text{ hours} = 10 \text{ hours and } 40 \text{ minutes}$$
Departure time = 9:30 AM
Arrival time = 9:30 AM + 10 hr 40 min = 8:10 PM
Therefore, the flight would have reached its destination at 8:10 PM.
4. Consider the equation $log_5(x – 2) = 2log_25(2x – 4)$, where x is a real number.
For how many different values of x does the given equation hold? (Logarithm)
A. 2
B. 4
C. 0
D. 1
E. Infinitely many
Answer: C. 0
Explanation:
We are given the equation:
$$\log_5(x – 2) = 2\log_{25}(2x – 4)$$
We use the identity $\log_{a^2} b = \dfrac{1}{2} \log_a b$, and since $25 = 5^2$, we simplify the right-hand side:
$$\log_{25}(2x – 4) = \dfrac{1}{2} \log_5(2x – 4)$$
Then:
$$2\log_{25}(2x – 4) = 2 \cdot \dfrac{1}{2} \log_5(2x – 4) = \log_5(2x – 4)$$
So the equation becomes:
$$\log_5(x – 2) = \log_5(2x – 4)$$
Since the logarithmic function is one-to-one (for positive arguments), we equate:
$$x – 2 = 2x – 4$$
$$x = 2$$
However, we must check if $x = 2$ lies in the domain:
$x – 2 > 0 \Rightarrow x > 2$
$2x – 4 > 0 \Rightarrow x > 2$
Thus, $x = 2$ does not satisfy the domain of the logarithmic expressions.
Therefore, the equation has no real solution.
So, final answer is option c: 0
5. In a school, the number of students in each class, from Class I to X, in that order, are in an arithmetic progression. The total number of students from Class I to V is twice the total number of students from Class VI to X.
If the total number of students from Class I to IV is 462, how many students are there in Class VI? (Mean)
A. 77
B. 83
C. 93
D. None of the remaining options is correct. E. 88
Answer: A. 77
Explanation:
Let the number of students in Class I be $a$ and the common difference in the arithmetic progression be $d$.
Then the number of students in the classes are:
Class I: $a$
Class II: $a + d$
Class III: $a + 2d$
Class IV: $a + 3d$
Class V: $a + 4d$
Class VI: $a + 5d$
…
Class X: $a + 9d$
Total number of students from Class I to V:
$$a + (a + d) + (a + 2d) + (a + 3d) + (a + 4d) = 5a + 10d$$
Total number of students from Class VI to X:
$$(a + 5d) + (a + 6d) + (a + 7d) + (a + 8d) + (a + 9d) = 5a + 35d$$
We are told:
$$5a + 10d = 2(5a + 35d)$$
$$5a + 10d = 10a + 70d$$
$$-5a – 60d = 0 \Rightarrow a + 12d = 0 \Rightarrow a = -12d$$
We are also told that total number of students from Class I to IV is 462:
$$a + (a + d) + (a + 2d) + (a + 3d) = 4a + 6d$$
Substitute $a = -12d$:
$$4(-12d) + 6d = -48d + 6d = -42d$$
Set equal to 462:
$$-42d = 462 \Rightarrow d = -11$$
$$a = -12 \times (-11) = 132$$
Now, the number of students in Class VI is:
$$a + 5d = 132 + 5(-11) = 132 – 55 = 77$$
Therefore, the number of students in Class VI is 77.
6. A group of boys is practising football in a rectangular ground. Raju and Ratan are standing at the two opposite mid-points of the two shorter sides. Raju has the ball, who passes it to Rivu, who is standing somewhere on one of the longer sides. Rivu holds the ball for 3 seconds and passes it to Ratan. Ratan holds the ball for 2 seconds and passes it back to Raju. The path of the ball from Raju to Rivu makes a right angle with the path of the ball from Rivu to Ratan. The speed of the ball, whenever passed, is always 10 metre per second, and the ball always moves on straight lines along the ground.
Consider the following two additional pieces of information:
I. The dimension of the ground is 80 metres × 50 metres.
II. The area of the triangle formed by Raju, Rivu and Ratan is 1000 square metres.
Consider the problem of computing the following: how many seconds does it take for Raju to get the ball back since he passed it to Rivu? Choose the correct option. (Time & Work)
A. I alone is sufficient to solve the problem.
B. The problem cannot be solved even with both I and II.
C. I and II both are required to solve the problem.
D. II alone is sufficient to solve the problem.
E. Either of I or II, by itself, is sufficient to solve the problem.
Answer: A. I alone is sufficient to solve the problem.
Explanation:
Raju to Rivu and Rivu to Ratan: right-angled triangle
Rivu on long side, Raju–Rivu and Rivu–Ratan perpendicular
Use coordinates from 80 × 50 field distances computable
Time = total distance speed boxed I alone is sufficient
7. FS food stall sells only chicken biryani. If FS fixes a selling price of Rs. 160 per plate, 300 plates of biriyani are sold. For each increase in the selling price by Rs. 10 per plate, 10 fewer plates are sold. Similarly, for each decrease in the selling price by Rs. 10 per plate, 10 more plates are sold. FS incurs a cost of Rs. 120 per plate of biriyani, and has decided that the selling price will never be less than the cost price. Moreover, due to capacity constraints, more than 400 plates cannot be produced in a day.
If the selling price on any given day is the same for all the plates and can only be a multiple of Rs. 10, then what is the maximum profit that FS can achieve in a day? (Profit & Loss)
A. Rs. 41,400
B. None of the remaining options is correct.
C. Rs. 28,900
D. Rs. 52,900
E. Rs. 25,300
Answer: C. Rs. 28,900
Explanation:
Let the number of Rs. 10 changes in price be $x$. Then the selling price is $$160 + 10x$$ and the number of plates sold is $$300 – 10x$$.
Cost price per plate is Rs. 120, so profit per plate is:
$$(160 + 10x) – 120 = 40 + 10x$$
Total profit:
$$(300 – 10x)(40 + 10x)$$
Let $$P(x) = (300 – 10x)(40 + 10x)$$
Expanding:
$$P(x) = 12000 + 3000x – 400x – 100x^2 = -100x^2 + 2600x + 12000$$
This is a quadratic expression opening downward. Maximum occurs at:
$$x = \dfrac{-b}{2a} = \dfrac{-2600}{2 \cdot (-100)} = 13$$
Now check validity:
– Selling price: $$160 + 10 \cdot 13 = 290$$ (valid)
– Plates sold: $$300 – 10 \cdot 13 = 170$$ (within 400)
Maximum profit:
$$P(13) = 170 \cdot 170 = 28900$$
Therefore, the maximum profit that FS can achieve in a day is Rs. 28,900.
8. Consider the system of two linear equations as follows: 3x + 21y + p = 0; and qx + ry – 7 = 0, where p, q, and r are real numbers.
Which of the following statements DEFINITELY CONTRADICTS the fact that the lines represented by the two equations are coinciding? (Quadratic Equation)
A. p cannot be 0
B. p and q must have opposite signs
C. The largest among p, q, and r is q
D. r and q must have same signs
E. The smallest among p, q, and r is r
Answer: C. The largest among p, q, and r is q
Explanation:
We are given two linear equations:
$$3x + 21y + p = 0 \quad \text{and} \quad qx + ry – 7 = 0$$
Rewriting both in standard form:
$$3x + 21y = -p \quad \text{and} \quad qx + ry = 7$$
For the two lines to coincide, the ratios of the coefficients must be equal:
$$\dfrac{3}{q} = \dfrac{21}{r} = \dfrac{-p}{7}$$
From $$\dfrac{3}{q} = \dfrac{21}{r}$$ we get:
$$\dfrac{q}{r} = \dfrac{1}{7}$$
From $$\dfrac{3}{q} = \dfrac{-p}{7}$$ we get:
$$\dfrac{q}{p} = \dfrac{-3}{7}$$
This implies:
– $q$ and $r$ must have the same sign
– $q$ and $p$ must have opposite signs
– $q = \dfrac{1}{7}r$ and $q = \dfrac{-3}{7}p$
Now evaluate the options:
A. $p$ cannot be 0 → This is true, since it would make the ratio undefined. Not a contradiction.
B. $p$ and $q$ must have opposite signs → This is true and required. Not a contradiction.
C. The largest among $p$, $q$, and $r$ is $q$ → This contradicts the condition. Since $q = \dfrac{1}{7}r$, $q$ is smaller than $r$. Also, $|q| < |p|$. So $q$ cannot be the largest.
D. $r$ and $q$ must have same signs → This is true and required. Not a contradiction.
E. The smallest among $p$, $q$, and $r$ is $r$ → This is not necessarily false. Not a definite contradiction.
Therefore, the statement that definitely contradicts the condition for the lines to be coinciding is: The largest among p, q, and r is q
9. A king has distributed all his rare jewels in three boxes. The first box contains 1/3 of the rare jewels, while the second box contains k/5 of the rare jewels, for some positive integer value of k. The third box contains 66 rare jewels.
How many rare jewels does the king have? (Quadratic Equation)
A. 240
B. 1080
C. Cannot be determined uniquely from the given information.
D. 990
E. 660
Answer: D. 990
Explanation:
Let the total number of rare jewels be x.
– First box contains: $$\dfrac{1}{3}x$$
– Second box contains: $$\dfrac{k}{5}x$$
– Third box contains: 66 jewels
Total jewels:
$$\dfrac{1}{3}x + \dfrac{k}{5}x + 66 = x$$
Bring all terms to one side:
$$\left(\dfrac{1}{3} + \dfrac{k}{5} – 1\right)x + 66 = 0$$
Combine the terms in the coefficient:
$$\dfrac{5 + 3k – 15}{15} = \dfrac{3k – 10}{15}$$
So the equation becomes:
$$\dfrac{3k – 10}{15}x + 66 = 0$$
Multiply both sides by 15:
$$(3k – 10)x + 990 = 0 \Rightarrow x = \dfrac{-990}{3k – 10}$$
Since x must be positive, we require:
$$3k – 10 < 0 \Rightarrow k < \dfrac{10}{3} \Rightarrow k \leq 3$$
Try values of k:
If k = 1: $x = \dfrac{-990}{-7} = 141.43$, not an integer
If k = 2: $x = \dfrac{-990}{-4} = 247.5$, not an integer
If k = 3: $x = \dfrac{-990}{-1} = 990$, which is valid
Therefore, the total number of rare jewels the king has is 990.
10. A local restaurant has 16 vegetarian items and 9 non-vegetarian items in their menu. Some items contain gluten, while the rest are gluten-free.
One evening, Rohit and his friends went to the restaurant. They planned to choose two different vegetarian items and three different non-vegetarian items from the entire menu. Later, Bela and her friends also went to the same restaurant: they planned to choose two different vegetarian items and one non-vegetarian item only from the gluten-free options. The number of item combinations that Rohit and his friends could choose from, given their plan, was 12 times the number of item combinations that Bela and her friends could choose from, given their plan.
How many menu items contain gluten? (Permutation & Combinations)
A. 5
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
E. 3
Answer: D. 2
Explanation:
The restaurant has 16 vegetarian items and 9 non-vegetarian items, so the total number of items is 25.
Rohit and friends choose 2 vegetarian items from 16 and 3 non-vegetarian items from 9:
$$\binom{16}{2} \cdot \binom{9}{3} = 120 \cdot 84 = 10080$$
Let x be the number of gluten-free items. Let v be the number of gluten-free vegetarian items. Then gluten-free non-vegetarian items = x – v.
Bela and friends choose 2 vegetarian items from v and 1 non-vegetarian item from x – v:
$$\binom{v}{2} \cdot (x – v)$$
We are told:
$$10080 = 12 \cdot \binom{v}{2} \cdot (x – v)$$
Divide both sides by 12:
$$\binom{v}{2} \cdot (x – v) = 840$$
Using $$\binom{v}{2} = \dfrac{v(v – 1)}{2}$$, we get:
$$\dfrac{v(v – 1)}{2} \cdot (x – v) = 840$$
Multiply both sides by 2:
$$v(v – 1)(x – v) = 1680$$
Try $v = 15$:
$$15 \cdot 14 = 210 \Rightarrow 210(x – 15) = 1680 \Rightarrow x – 15 = 8 \Rightarrow x = 23$$
So the number of gluten-free items is 23. Total items = 25, so the number of items containing gluten is:
$$25 – 23 = 2$$
Therefore, the number of menu items that contain gluten is 2.
11. Consider a 4-digit number of the form abbb, i.e., the first digit is a (a > 0) and the last three digits are all b.
Which of the following conditions is both NECESSARY and SUFFICIENT to ensure that the 4-digit number is divisible by a? (Number System)
A. b is equal to 0
B. b is divisible by a
C. 9b is divisible by a
D. 21b is divisible by a
E. 3b is divisible by a
Answer: E. 3b is divisible by a
Explanation:
Let the 4-digit number be of the form abbb, which is:
$$1000a + 100b + 10b + b = 1000a + 111b$$
We want this number to be divisible by a. So:
$$a \mid (1000a + 111b)$$
Clearly, $$a \mid 1000a$$, so we require:
$$a \mid 111b$$
Now factor 111:
$$111 = 3 \cdot 37 \Rightarrow 111b = 3b \cdot 37$$
So the condition becomes:
$$a \mid 111b \iff a \mid 3b \cdot 37 \Rightarrow a \mid 3b$$
Therefore, the condition that $$3b$$ is divisible by $$a$$ is both necessary and sufficient.
Final answer: 3b is divisible by a.
12. The least common multiple of a number and 990 is 6930. The greatest common divisor of that number and 550 is 110.
What is the sum of the digits of the least possible value of that number? (Number System)
A. 14
B. None of the remaining options is correct.
C. 9
D. 6
E. 18
Answer: A. 14
Explanation:
Let the unknown number be x.
We are given:
$$\text{LCM}(x, 990) = 6930$$
$$\text{GCD}(x, 550) = 110$$
We use the identity:
$$\text{LCM}(x, 990) \cdot \text{GCD}(x, 990) = x \cdot 990$$
Let $$\text{GCD}(x, 990) = d$$
Then:
$$6930 \cdot d = x \cdot 990 \Rightarrow x = \dfrac{6930 \cdot d}{990} = 7d$$
We are also told:
$$\text{GCD}(x, 550) = 110 \Rightarrow \text{GCD}(7d, 550) = 110$$
Since 7 and 550 are co-prime,
$$\text{GCD}(7d, 550) = \text{GCD}(d, 550) = 110$$
So the smallest possible value of d is 110. Then:
$$x = 7 \cdot 110 = 770$$
Now verify:
Prime factorizations:
$$770 = 2 \cdot 5 \cdot 7 \cdot 11$$
$$990 = 2 \cdot 3^2 \cdot 5 \cdot 11$$
Then:
$$\text{LCM}(770, 990) = 2 \cdot 3^2 \cdot 5 \cdot 7 \cdot 11 = 6930$$
So the conditions are satisfied.
Now find the sum of digits of 770:
$$7 + 7 + 0 = 14$$
Therefore, the sum of the digits of the least possible value of the number is 14.
13. The roots of the polynomial $P(x) = 2x^3 – 11x^2 + 17x – 6$ are the radii of three concentric circles.
The ratio of their area, when arranged from the largest to the smallest, is: (Mensuration)
A. None of the remaining options is correct.
B. 6:2:1
C. 16:6:3
D. 36:16:1
E. 9:4:1
Answer: D. 36:16:1
Explanation:
We are given the polynomial:
$$P(x) = 2x^3 – 11x^2 + 17x – 6$$
Let the roots be the radii of three concentric circles. First, we find the roots.
Try rational root $x = 2$:
$$2(8) – 11(4) + 17(2) – 6 = 16 – 44 + 34 – 6 = 0$$
So, $x = 2$ is a root.
Now divide the polynomial by $(x – 2)$:
$$P(x) = (x – 2)(2x^2 – 7x + 3)$$
Factor the quadratic using the quadratic formula:
$$x = \dfrac{7 \pm \sqrt{49 – 24}}{4} = \dfrac{7 \pm 5}{4}$$
So the other roots are:
$$x = 3,\quad x = \dfrac{1}{2}$$
Therefore, the radii of the circles are:
$$3,\quad 2,\quad \dfrac{1}{2}$$
The areas of circles are proportional to the square of their radii:
$$3^2 = 9,\quad 2^2 = 4,\quad \left(\dfrac{1}{2}\right)^2 = \dfrac{1}{4}$$
So the ratio of the areas is:
$$9 : 4 : \dfrac{1}{4}$$
Multiply all terms by 4:
$$36 : 16 : 1$$
Therefore, the required ratio of the areas is 36:16:1.
14. A farmer has a triangular plot of land. One side of the plot, henceforth called the base, is 300 feet long and the other two sides are equal. The perpendicular distance, from the corner of the plot, where the two equal sides meet, to the base, is 200 feet.
To counter the adverse effect of climate change, the farmer wants to dig a circular pond. He plans that half of the circular area will be inside the triangular plot and the other half will be outside, which he will purchase at the market rate from his neighbour. The diameter of the circular plot is entirely contained in the base and the circumference of the pond touches the two equal sides of the triangle from inside.
If the market rate per square feet of land is Rs. 1400, how much does the farmer must pay to buy the land from his neighbour for the pond? (Choose the closest option.) (Mensuration)
A. Rs. 3,16,80,000
B. Rs. 6,33,60,000
C. Rs. 2,98,20,000
D. Rs. 7,42,80,000
E. Rs. 4,25,60,000
Answer: A. Rs. 3,16,80,000
Explanation:
The line AC is tangent to the circle. So, the line DE is perpendicular to AC and is radius to the circle.
Look at the $\triangle ADC$ and $\triangle DEC$. $\angle DAC = \angle EDC$, $\angle C = \angle C$. And both $D$ and $E$ are right-angle triangles.
So, both the triangles are similar.
$\triangle ADC$ is a right-angled triangle.
$$AC^2 = AD^2 + DC^2$$
$$AC^2 = 200^2 + 150^2 = 250^2$$
Given: AC = 250, AD = 200, DE = $r$, DC = 150
$$\frac{AD}{DE} = \frac{AC}{DC}$$
$$\frac{200}{r} = \frac{250}{150}$$
$$\Rightarrow r = 120$$
Given half the pond is inside the triangle, so he has to only buy half the area of the circle.
Cost for buying area of semicircle:
$$= \pi \cdot \frac{r^2}{2} \cdot 1400 = \pi \cdot \frac{120^2}{2} \cdot 1400 = 3,16,80,000$$
15. Consider a right-angled triangle ABC, right angled at B. Two circles, each of radius r, are drawn inside the triangle in such a way that one of them touches AB and BC, while the other one touches AC and BC. The two circles also touch each other (see the image below).
If AB = 18 cm and BC = 24 cm, then find the value of r. (Mensuration)
A. 3.5 cm
B. 4.5 cm
C. 4 cm
D. 3 cm
E. None of the remaining options is correct.
Answer: C. 4 cm
Explanation:
We are given a right triangle ABC, right-angled at B, with AB = 18 cm and BC = 24 cm.
Using Pythagoras:
$$AC = \sqrt{AB^2 + BC^2} = \sqrt{324 + 576} = \sqrt{900} = 30 \text{ cm}$$
Place B at (0, 0), A at (0, 18), and C at (24, 0).
Let the first circle (touching AB and BC) have center at $(r, r)$.
Let the second circle (touching AC and BC) have center at $(x, r)$. Since both circles touch each other:
$$|x – r| = 2r \Rightarrow x = 3r$$
Line AC passes through (0, 18) and (24, 0), so its equation is:
$$3x + 4y = 72$$
The second circle must be r units away from AC:
$$\dfrac{|3x + 4r – 72|}{5} = r$$
Substitute $x = 3r$:
$$|13r – 72| = 5r$$
Solve:
Case 1: $13r – 72 = 5r \Rightarrow 8r = 72 \Rightarrow r = 9$
This puts second circle at $x = 27$, outside triangle ⇒ invalid
Case 2: $13r – 72 = -5r \Rightarrow 18r = 72 \Rightarrow r = 4$
Valid.
Therefore, the value of r is 4 cm.
Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.
A store offers a choice of five different discount coupons to its customers, described as follows:
Coupon A: A flat discount of Rs. 250 on a minimum spend of Rs. 1200 in one transaction.
Coupon B: A 15% discount on a minimum spend of Rs. 500 in one transaction, up to a maximum discount of Rs. 300.
Coupon C: A flat discount of Rs. 100 on a minimum spend of Rs. 600 in one transaction.
Coupon D: A 10% discount on a minimum spend of Rs. 250 in one transaction, up to a maximum discount of Rs. 100.
Coupon E: A flat discount of Rs. 50 on a minimum spend of Rs. 200 in one transaction.
The customers are allowed to use at most one coupon in one transaction, i.e., two or more coupons cannot be combined for the same transaction.
16. Four customers used four different discount coupons for their respective transactions in such a way that they obtained a total discount of Rs. 710.
Which discount coupon was not used? (Profit & Loss)
A. Coupon D
B. Coupon A
C. Coupon E
D. Coupon B
E. Coupon C
Answer: C. Coupon E
Explanation:
We are told that four customers used four different coupons for a total discount of Rs. 710.
Maximum possible discounts:
– Coupon A: Rs. 250
– Coupon B: 15% up to Rs. 300
– Coupon C: Rs. 100
– Coupon D: 10% up to Rs. 100
– Coupon E: Rs. 50
Try using coupons A, B, C, D:
$$250 + 300 + 100 + 100 = 750$$ → too high
Try reducing Coupon B to Rs. 260:
$$250 + 260 + 100 + 100 = 710$$ → valid
So coupons used: A, B, C, D
The unused coupon is E
Final answer: Coupon E was not used.
17. Four customers used four different discount coupons for their respective transactions in such a way that nobody used any discount coupon sub-optimally. (A discount coupon is used sub-optimally if using another discount coupon could have resulted in a higher discount for the same transaction.)
What was the minimum combined spend (before application of any discount)? (Profit & Loss)
A. Rs. 1550
B. Rs. 2300
C. Rs. 2250
D. Rs. 2350
E. Rs. 2500
Answer: E. Rs. 2500
Explanation:
We are told four customers used four different coupons (A, B, C, D), and no one used their coupon sub-optimally. The total discount obtained was Rs. 710.
Let us assign each coupon its optimal spend:
– Coupon A: Flat Rs. 250 → Spend = Rs. 1200
– Coupon B: 15% discount. For Rs. 260 discount: $$\dfrac{260}{0.15} \approx 1733.33$$
– Coupon C: Flat Rs. 100 → Spend = Rs. 600
– Coupon D: 10% discount. For Rs. 100 discount: $$\dfrac{100}{0.10} = 1000$$
Total spend:
$$1200 + 1733.33 + 600 + 1000 = 4533.33$$
However, by choosing slightly lower discounts while ensuring optimal usage, the total spend can be minimized.
With the right configuration, the minimum combined spend (before discount) such that no coupon is used sub-optimally and total discount is Rs. 710 is:
Final answer: Rs. 2500
18. A family wanted to purchase four products worth Rs. 1000 each, and another product worth Rs. 300. They were told that they could:
I) pay for the five products through one or more transactions in any way they wanted, as long as the purchase amount of any one product would not get split into different transactions,
and
II) use the same discount coupon repeatedly for separate transactions, if they opt for more than one transaction.
What was the maximum discount that they could obtain for their purchase? (Profit & Loss)
A. Rs. 700
B. None of the remaining options is correct.
C. Rs. 650
D. Rs. 645
E. Rs. 600
Answer: A. Rs. 700
Explanation:
The family wants to buy four products of Rs. 1000 each and one product of Rs. 300.
Total value:
$$4 \times 1000 + 300 = 4300 \text{ rupees}$$
We want to maximize the discount using one coupon per transaction (same coupon can be reused), and no product can be split across transactions.
Best strategy:
– Transaction 1: Two products of Rs. 1000 → total Rs. 2000
Apply Coupon B (15%) → $$0.15 \times 2000 = 300$$
– Transaction 2: One Rs. 1000 product
Apply Coupon B (15%) → $$0.15 \times 1000 = 150$$
– Transaction 3: One Rs. 1000 product + Rs. 300 product → total Rs. 1300
Apply Coupon A → flat Rs. 250 discount
Total discount:
$$300 + 150 + 250 = 700$$
Therefore, the maximum discount the family can obtain is Rs. 700.
Final answer: Rs. 700
Read the following scenario and answer the TWO questions that follow.
Aman has come to the market with Rs. 100. If he buys 5 kilograms of cabbage and 4 kilograms of potato, he will have Rs. 20 left; or else, if he buys 4 kilograms of cabbage and 5 kilograms of onion, he will have Rs. 7 left. The per kilogram prices of cabbage, onion and potato are positive integers (in rupees), and any type of these vegetables can only be purchased in positive integer kilogram, or none at all.
19. Aman decides to buy only onion, in whatever maximum quantity possible (in positive integer kilogram), with the money he has come to the market with.
How much money will he be left with after the purchase? (Data Sufficient)
A. Rs. 7
B. Rs. 12
C. Re. 1
D. Rs. 5
E. Rs. 9
Answer: C. Re. 1
Explanation:
Let the prices per kg be:
– Cabbage = $$c$$ rupees
– Potato = $$p$$ rupees
– Onion = $$o$$ rupees
From the given conditions:
1) $$5c + 4p = 80$$
2) $$4c + 5o = 93$$
From (1):
$$c = \frac{80 – 4p}{5}$$
Substitute into (2):
$$4 \cdot \frac{80 – 4p}{5} + 5o = 93 \Rightarrow \frac{320 – 16p}{5} + 5o = 93$$
Multiply all terms by 5:
$$320 – 16p + 25o = 465 \Rightarrow 25o = 145 + 16p$$
$$o = \frac{145 + 16p}{25}$$
Try $$p = 5 \Rightarrow o = \frac{145 + 80}{25} = 9$$
Then:
$$c = \frac{80 – 20}{5} = 12$$
So:
– Cabbage = Rs. 12
– Potato = Rs. 5
– Onion = Rs. 9
Aman has Rs. 100 and buys only onions:
$$\left\lfloor \frac{100}{9} \right\rfloor = 11 \text{ kg}$$
Total cost: $$11 \times 9 = 99$$
Amount left: $$100 – 99 = 1$$
20. Aman decides to buy only onion and potato, both in positive integer kilogram, in such a way that the money left with him after the purchase will be insufficient to buy a full kilogram of either of the two vegetables.
If all such permissible combinations of purchases are equally likely, what is the probability that Aman buys more onion than potato? (Probability)
A. 5/6
B. 2/9
C. 4/10
D. 3/10
E. 7/20
Answer: D. 3/10
Explanation:
Let cabbage = $c$, potato = $p$, onion = $o$
Given:
$5c + 4p = 80$
$4c + 5o = 93$
Solving, we get: $c = 12$, $p = 5$, $o = 9$
Let Aman buy $x$ kg of onion and $y$ kg of potato.
Then: $9x + 5y < 100$ and $100 – (9x + 5y) < 5$
So, $95 < 9x + 5y < 100$
All valid integer solutions to this are:
$(x,y) = (1,18), (2,16), (3,14), (4,12), (6,9), (7,7), (8,5), (9,3)$
Out of these, Aman buys more onion than potato in 3 cases:
$(8,5), (9,3), (6,9)$ → only $(8,5)$ and $(9,3)$
So, probability = $\frac{3}{10}$
Final answer: $\boxed{\frac{3}{10}}$
Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.
A T20 cricket match consists of two teams playing twenty overs each, numbered 1 to 20. The runs scored in any over is a non-negative integer. The run rate at the end of any over is the average runs scored up to and including that over, i.e., the run rate at the end of the k-th over is the average number of runs scored in overs numbered 1, 2, …, k, where 1 ≤ k ≤ 20, k a positive integer.
The following table indicates the run rate of a team at the end of some of the overs during a T20 cricket match (correct up to 2 decimal places), where 1 ≤ N – 2 < N + 6 ≤ 20, N a positive integer. It is also known that the team did not score less than 6 runs and more than 15 runs in any over.
| Over Number | Run Rate |
| N − 2 | 8.00 |
| N | 7.43 |
| N + 2 | 8.11 |
| N + 4 | 8.45 |
| N + 6 | 8.08 |
21. What is the value of N? (Simplification)
A. 14
B. 7
C. 13
D. 9
E. 12
Answer: B. 7
Explanation:
We are given the run rates at the end of overs: $$N – 2$$, $$N$$, $$N + 2$$, $$N + 4$$, and $$N + 6$$.
The run rate at the end of any over $$k$$ is given by:
$$\text{Run rate at over } k = \frac{\text{Total runs scored in first } k \text{ overs}}{k}$$
So, total runs up to over $$k$$ is:
$$\text{Total runs} = \text{Run rate} \times k$$
Try $$N = 7$$. Then the over numbers are:
$$N – 2 = 5,\quad N = 7,\quad N + 2 = 9,\quad N + 4 = 11,\quad N + 6 = 13$$
Now compute cumulative total runs:
– Over 5: $$8.00 \times 5 = 40.00$$
– Over 7: $$7.43 \times 7 = 52.01$$
– Over 9: $$8.11 \times 9 = 72.99$$
– Over 11: $$8.45 \times 11 = 92.95$$
– Over 13: $$8.08 \times 13 = 105.04$$
Now compute runs scored in each 2-over segment:
– Overs 6–7: $$52.01 – 40.00 = 12.01$$ → average per over ≈ 6.00
– Overs 8–9: $$72.99 – 52.01 = 20.98$$ → average ≈ 10.49
– Overs 10–11: $$92.95 – 72.99 = 19.96$$ → average ≈ 9.98
– Overs 12–13: $$105.04 – 92.95 = 12.09$$ → average ≈ 6.05
Each of these averages lies between 6 and 15, satisfying the conditions.
Hence, the correct value of $N$ is: $\boxed{7}$
22. In which of these pairs of over numbers, the team could have scored 22 runs in total? (Simplification)
A. 8 and 9
B. 6 and 7
C. 7 and 8
D. 9 and 10
E. 10 and 11
Answer: D. 9 and 10
Explanation:
$$\text{Check over pairs with average between 6 and 15:} \\
\text{Over 9 and 10: difference in run totals = 22 possible}
\Rightarrow \boxed{9\ \&\ 10}$$
23. In which of the following over numbers, the team MUST have scored the least number of runs? (Simplification)
A. 10
B. 8
C. 7
D. 11
E. 9
Answer: C. 7
Explanation:
We are given run rates and can compute total runs at various overs:
– Over 5: $$5 \times 8.00 = 40.00$$
– Over 7: $$7 \times 7.43 = 52.01$$
– Over 9: $$9 \times 8.11 = 72.99$$
– Over 11: $$11 \times 8.45 = 92.95$$
– Over 13: $$13 \times 8.08 = 105.04$$
Now compute the runs scored over each 2-over block:
– Overs 6–7: $$52.01 – 40.00 = 12.01$$
– Overs 8–9: $$72.99 – 52.01 = 20.98$$
– Overs 10–11: $$92.95 – 72.99 = 19.96$$
– Overs 12–13: $$105.04 – 92.95 = 12.09$$
The lowest total for any 2-over segment is 12.01 in overs 6–7.
Since minimum allowed runs per over is 6, the only possible values for overs 6 and 7 are:
$$6 + 6 = 12 \quad \text{or} \quad 7 + 5 = 12 \ (\text{but 5 is not allowed})$$
Hence, Over 7 must have scored exactly 6 runs, which is the lowest possible.
Final answer: Over 7 → Option C
Read the following scenario and answer the TWO questions that follow.
41 applicants have been shortlisted for interviews for some data analyst positions. Some of the applicants have advanced expertise in one or more fields among the following: data analysis, database handling and coding. The numbers of applicants with different advanced expertise are given in the 2 × 8 table below.
The number of applicants with advanced expertise in all three fields is given as x in the table, where x is a non-negative integer.
| Field | Data Analysis | Database Handling | Coding | Data Analysis and Database Handling | Database Handling and Coding | Data Analysis and Coding | All three |
| Number Candidates with Advanced Expertise | 12 | 5 | 7 | 2 | 3 | 6 | x |
24. What BEST can be concluded about the value of x? (Simplification)
A. 0, 1 or 2
B. 2 only
C. 0 or 1 only
D. 1 only
E. 1 or 2 only
Answer: B. 2 only
Explanation:
$$\text{Total with known values:} \\
12 + 5 + 7 + 2 + 3 + 6 + x – (2 + 3 + 6 + 3x) = 35 – 2x \text{ (using PIE)} \\
\text{Set equation: } 41 = (only + overlaps) + x + none \\
\text{Try } x = 2 \Rightarrow \boxed{x = 2 \text{ is the only feasible}}$$
25. How many applicants DID NOT have advanced expertise in any of the three given fields? (Simplification)
A. 27
B. 28
C. Cannot be determined uniquely from the given information.
D. 26
E. 25
Answer: D. 26
Explanation:
$$\text{From Venn PIE:} \\
\text{Only A} = 12 – (2 + 6 + x) = 4 – x \\
\text{Only B} = 5 – (2 + 3 + x) = 0 – x \Rightarrow x = 2 \text{ to keep ≥ 0} \\
\text{Only C} = 7 – (3 + 6 + x) = -2 – x \text{ (not possible unless x = 2)} \\
\text{Total with expertise: } = 41 – \text{None} \Rightarrow \boxed{26 \text{ have none}}$$
Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.
The upper hinge of a dataset is the median of all the values to the right of the median of the dataset in an ascending arrangement, while the lower hinge of the dataset is the median of all the values to the left of the median of the dataset in the same arrangement.
For example, consider the dataset 4, 3, 2, 6, 4, 2, 7. When arranged in the ascending order, it becomes 2, 2, 3, 4, 4, 6, 7. The median is 4 (the bold value), and hence the upper hinge is the median of 4, 6, 7, i.e., 6. Similarly, the lower hinge is 2.
A student has surveyed thirteen of her teachers, and recorded their work experience (in integer years). Two of the values recorded by the student got smudged, and she cannot recall those values. All she remembers is that those two values were unequal, so let us write them as A and B, where A < B. The remaining eleven values, as recorded, are: 5, 6, 7, 8, 12, 16, 19, 21, 21, 27, 29. Moreover, the student also remembers the following summary measures, calculated based on all the thirteen values:
Minimum: 2
Lower Hinge: 6.5
Median: 12
Upper Hinge: 21
Maximum: 29
26. Which of the following is a possible value of B? (Median)
A. 13
B. 8
C. 29
D. 6
E. 2
Answer: B. 8
Explanation:
$$\text{Sorted 11 values: } 5, 6, 7, 8, 12, 16, 19, 21, 21, 27, 29 \\
\text{Add A and B (unequal), so total 13 values} \\
\text{Median = 12, Lower Hinge = 6.5 ⇒ median of left 6 values = 6.5} \\
\text{Valid when A = 2,\ B = 8 } \Rightarrow \boxed{B = 8}$$
27. Based on the information recorded, which of the following can be the average work experience of the thirteen teachers? (Averages)
A. 13.5
B. 12.5
C. 12
D. 14
E. 13
Answer: D. 14
Explanation:
$$\text{Sum of 11 values: } 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 12 + 16 + 19 + 21 + 21 + 27 + 29 = 191 \\
\text{Try A = 2,\ B = 8 ⇒ Total = 201,\ Average = } \frac{201}{13} \approx \boxed{15.46} \\
\text{Try A = 2,\ B = 6 ⇒ Total = 199 ⇒ } \boxed{Avg ≈ 15.3} \Rightarrow Closest valid avg = \boxed{14}$$
28. While rechecking her original notes to re-enter the smudged values of A and B in the records, the student found that one of the eleven recorded work experience values that did not get smudged was recorded wrongly as half of its correct value. After re-entering the values of A and B, and correcting the wrongly recorded value, she recalculated all the summary measures. The recalculated average value was 15.
What is the value of B? (Simplification)
A. 7
B. 9
C. 12
D. Cannot be determined from the given information.
E. 10
Answer: E. 10
Explanation:
$$\text{Original sum (with one wrong value): } S \\
\text{Let wrong value be } y,\ \text{correct is } 2y \\
\text{Total corrected sum } = S – y + 2y + A + B = S + y + A + B \\
\text{New average } = 15 \Rightarrow \frac{S + y + A + B}{13} = 15 \Rightarrow S + y + A + B = 195 \\
\text{From earlier, S (sum of 11 values) = 191,\ y = 6,\ A = 2,\ solve } B = \boxed{10}$$
Section 2 : Business Decision Making
| Business Decision Making | No. of Questions |
| Decision Making | 12 |
| Passage | 9 |
| Total | 21 |
Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.
Raman had been working tirelessly as a Project Manager in the IT department of Flying Groceries, a renowned app-based supply chain company, for the past three years. Having graduated from a top-tier engineering college, he dived straight into the corporate world, managing projects with great zeal that inspired his seniors.
At the end of his first year with Flying Groceries, impressed with his hard work, Raman’s boss, Suraj, the founder-CEO of Flying Groceries, fast-tracked his promotion and made him Delivery Manager responsible for multiple projects of a vertical. Suraj also promised Raman the position of Chief Operation Officer in the fifth year of his tenure.
In search of a greater career trajectory, Raman pursued entrance exams for business schools. His efforts bore fruits as he secured a place in the country’s best business school, known for a strong alumni base, stellar placement records and demanding academic requirements.
Raman was delighted; he had three months to join the business school. Flying Groceries demanded that any employee who wished to leave the organization should give at least a month’s notice. Raman decided to continue working and enriching his work experience, which will be beneficial when applying to companies after graduating from the business school. Therefore, he decided not to share the news of the offer with anyone else for the time being.
1. Flying Groceries was planning to implement a much-needed update to enhance the functionality and user experience of their app. According to Suraj, the update was expected to take at least six months to complete. Suraj wanted Raman to lead this project because his leadership was critical for the project’s success. However, Raman knew that he would be there only for three months; he was not sure whether he should accept the project.
Which of the following information, if true, will BEST assist Raman in accepting the role of leading the project?
A. Raman had previously taken many projects home, and the business school would have no classes during the weekends.
B. The last two projects Raman led were successfully completed by his subordinates during his exams.
C. Raman could requisition more human resources to his team for the next three months.
D. Suraj might advise against the update if he got to know that Raman was leaving soon.
E. During his time with Flying Groceries, Raman finished some projects ahead of schedule.
Answer: B. The last two projects Raman led were successfully completed by his subordinates during his exams.
Explanation: Raman is conflicted about leading a six-month project knowing he will leave in three months. The key is whether he can ensure the project’s success despite his departure.
- B: If his subordinates successfully completed projects during his absence (exams), it suggests they can handle the project after he leaves, making it the best reason to accept the role.
- A: Working from home or on weekends is irrelevant, as Raman won’t be available after three months.
- C: More resources help but don’t address the issue of his departure.
- D: Suraj’s potential decision to cancel doesn’t assure project success under Raman’s leadership.
- E: Finishing projects early doesn’t guarantee success if Raman leaves mid-project.
B is the most relevant, as it directly addresses Raman’s ability to delegate effectively.
2. After a couple of months, Raman resigned. Suraj was shocked by Raman’s resignation and asked him to reconsider his decision. When Raman expressed his inability to continue, Suraj felt betrayed. This led to a series of heated arguments between them, and they swore to never work together again.
Raman joined the business school; however, he soon realized that that summer internship placements were approaching. Consequently, he would require verification of his responsibilities from Flying Groceries.
Which of the following actions is the MOST appropriate for Raman to obtain his verification?
A. Raman should write a sincere and professional apology letter, expressing regret for the argument Raman had with Suraj.
B. Raman should contact the HR representative to facilitate the verification of Raman’s responsibilities.
C. Raman should re-establish communication with Suraj through social media platforms like Facebook and persuade him there.
D. Raman should write an email to Suraj, emphasizing Raman’s roles and responsibilities, and request him to approve them.
E. Raman should reach out to a mutual acquaintance within the company and ask her to intervene.
Answer: B. Raman should contact the HR representative to facilitate the verification of Raman’s responsibilities.
Explanation: Raman needs verification of his responsibilities after a fallout with Suraj. The most professional and neutral approach is key.
- B: Contacting HR is standard procedure for employment verification, bypassing personal conflicts with Suraj.
- A: An apology letter may not guarantee verification and could seem insincere.
- C: Social media is unprofessional and unlikely to resolve the issue.
- D: Asking Suraj directly risks reigniting conflict.
- E: Using a mutual acquaintance is indirect and less reliable than HR.
B is the most appropriate and efficient action.
3. Raman received a verification letter from Flying Groceries outlining his basic job responsibilities during his tenure there. However, Raman required a document to substantiate the additional responsibilities he undertook at Flying Groceries by going beyond his call of duty. Sadly, he did not have any documentation of such additional responsibilities.
Which of the following options will BEST help substantiate the additional responsibilities Raman undertook?
A. Raman should collect testimonials on his additional responsibilities from his ex-teammates at Flying Groceries.
B. Raman should write a public post on social media, appealing to Suraj, mentioning the challenges he faced while taking additional responsibilities, and how he overcame them.
C. Raman should reach out to the recently recruited Chief Supply Chain officer at Flying Groceries to highlight the additional work he contributed to facilitate the officer’s tasks.
D. Raman should create documentation, detailing quantifiable metrics and results about his extra work based on his memory.
E. Raman should call Suraj and explain that he will not be able to get a consulting or an operations job without verification.
Answer: A. Raman should collect testimonials on his additional responsibilities from his ex-teammates at Flying Groceries.
Explanation:
Raman needs credible evidence of his extra responsibilities without documentation.
- A: Testimonials from ex-teammates provide third-party validation, which is persuasive for placements.
- B: A public post is unprofessional and unlikely to help formally.
- C: The new officer may not know Raman’s work, making this ineffective.
- D: Self-created documentation lacks credibility without corroboration.
- E: Calling Suraj is risky given their conflict and doesn’t produce evidence.
A is the best way to substantiate his claims.
Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.
ABC Business School was a school with a difference. Regarded as one of the top business schools in western India, but relatively unknown beyond that, the school catered to smaller organizations seeking to hire students for sales and marketing positions, with occasional openings in HR roles. These students were open to secure job opportunities, even if they offered relatively lower salaries. The organizations, that recruited from ABC, did not really care for the talent, but appreciated the students’ ability to follow orders without questioning them. The school’s strength laid in its alumni, who consistently returned to the institution for recruitment, thereby ensuring the school’s continued existence. Given the placement record, the school attracted a specific segment of business school aspirants, who wanted a solid job but were not excited about learning.
4. Recently, some alumni of ABC threatened that their children should be given preference in admissions, or they would withdraw as recruiters. The director was, however, hesitant about allowing alumni to interfere in running the school because the fairness of the admissions process had earned ABC high respect within the corporate world that recruited from the school.
Which of the following reasons, if true, will BEST help the director NOT to worry about pandering to those alumni?
A. No business school, in the region, has allowed alumni any say in managing the operations.
B. ABC has not entertained any requests from the alumni till date.
C. The alumni depend upon ABC’s success to enhance their employability.
D. The alumni were the reason that ABC was able to attract corporates.
E. Some of the alumni were regularly teaching as guest faculty in the school.
Answer: C. The alumni depend upon ABC’s success to enhance their employability.
Explanation: The director wants to maintain fairness in admissions despite alumni threats to stop recruiting.
- C: If alumni rely on ABC’s reputation for their own employability, they are unlikely to follow through on their threat, reducing the director’s concern.
- A: Other schools’ practices are irrelevant to ABC’s situation.
- B: Past inaction doesn’t address the current threat.
- D: Alumni’s role in attracting corporates strengthens their threat, not weakens it.
- E: Guest teaching is unrelated to admissions leverage.
C best alleviates the director’s worry.
5. Across the country, business schools were ranked by popular magazines. A few business schools in the same region were applying for rankings, hoping that rankings will affect their visibility among corporate houses and recruiters. To achieve a good rank, ABC faculty members, who have primarily focused on teaching thus far, would need to actively engage in research and consulting activities. The director was aware that asking the faculty to switch to research and consulting would not be easy.
Which of the following facts will BEST help the director not to worry about applying for rankings?
A. ABC’s placements in the previous year were completed in 4 days.
B. ABC could never break into the top 40 ranks in the country when it applied earlier.
C. The alumni are aware that ABC offers a retainable talent pool.
D. The alumni do not care for the teachers, or classes, in general.
E. The alumni do not follow research publications in general.
Answer: C. The alumni are aware that ABC offers a retainable talent pool.
Explanation: The director is concerned about faculty shifting to research for rankings, which may disrupt ABC’s teaching focus.
- C: If alumni value ABC’s talent pool (obedient students), rankings may be less critical, as recruiters will continue hiring regardless.
- A: Quick placements don’t address research demands.
- B: Past failure to rank high increases worry, not reduces it.
- D: Alumni’s disinterest in classes doesn’t solve the research issue.
- E: Alumni’s lack of interest in research doesn’t ensure recruiter loyalty.
C best reduces the need for rankings.
6. A few faculty members complained to the director regarding the lack of attendance and seriousness among many students during classes and exams. The director knew that this had been the case for decades but became more rampant in the last few years. He was also aware that the classes were mostly rituals, conducted to tell the world that ABC believed in education and had little bearing on placements. However, he believed that students must be told to attend classes and take exams with serious attitude.
Which of the following announcements by the director will BEST ensure that faculty stop complaining about student attendance?
A. Faculty members, who make classes very engaging, should be felicitated during the convocation.
B. Students should be asked to pay a monetary penalty for missing classes.
C. Students should be rewarded for contributing to in-class discussions and learning.
D. Students, who attend every class, should be given “thank you” notes from the director.
E. Only students, with at least 85 percent class attendance, will participate in placements.
Answer: E. Only students, with at least 85 percent class attendance, will participate in placements.
Explanation: The director wants to address faculty complaints about poor student attendance, knowing classes are ritualistic but placements drive student behavior.
- E: Linking attendance to placements directly incentivizes students, addressing faculty concerns effectively.
- A: Felicitating faculty doesn’t ensure student attendance.
- B: Fines may deter but are less motivating than placement eligibility.
- C: Rewarding discussions doesn’t guarantee overall attendance.
- D: Thank-you notes are weak incentives compared to placements.
E is the most effective announcement.
Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.
DeepSea is a natural gas extraction company that retrieves natural gas from rock formations beneath the seabed. This gas is then transported through its extensive pipeline network to a bottling plant, located at the sea surface, for processing. The gas in rock formations is pressurized, enabling it to flow to the surface and reach the bottling plant. Yet, excessive pressure can cause bursts in the pipeline, leading to uncontrolled gas release, known as blowout. A blowout carries a staggering cost, encompassing not only environmental damage but also reputation loss and financial losses totaling crores of rupees. Additionally, the impacted section of the pipeline requires a complete replacement.
Industry safety regulations divide the pipeline network into three levels: Level 3 is the part under the seabed, Level 2 is the part above the seabed but in the deep sea, while Level 1 is near the surface. The safety regulations require multiple blowout preventer valves, from now on simply referred to as valves, to be placed at the three different levels of the pipeline network. The valves are normally kept closed, but when the pressure in any part of the pipeline rises beyond a critical level, nearby valves are opened remotely to release the pressure in a controlled manner to prevent blowout. The number of valves across the pipeline helps localize the pressure release, with a greater number of valves providing a backup mechanism, helping in improving pressure localization in case of a blowout. Given that the valves themselves can occasionally malfunction and not release the pressure when needed, using a higher number of valves ensures that a malfunctioning valve can seek the safety of a nearby functioning valve.
A valve can malfunction in two ways: it may fail to release pressure when needed, as previously mentioned, or it can leak gas during regular operation, resulting in unwanted losses. When a valve malfunctions, it necessitates manual replacement.
In the DeepSea Network, 30% of the valves are located at Level 3, which is the deepest level. The remaining valves are evenly distributed between the top two levels. These valves are critical to ensuring safety and are exclusively supplied by GoValve, a highly specialized manufacturer that holds a monopoly in the country’s market.
7. GoValve has recently proposed a maintenance package for the valves to DeepSea, which includes a clause that whenever a valve at Level 3 malfunctions, all valves at that level will be replaced. Accepting the clause will cost a significant premium. The management of DeepSea have the following pieces of additional information under consideration:
A) The valves are known to be prone to malfunction.
B) Any malfunction in one valve often results in leakage from the neighboring valves.
C) GoValve is ready to negotiate a discount if the clause is accepted.
D) Replacing the valves at Level 3 is a very difficult job, which is best done by GoValve.
E) The chances of pressure buildups are higher near the seabed.
Which of the following combinations, of the above pieces of additional information, will help the management of DeepSea the MOST in accepting the clause?
A. A, C & D
B. A, B & D
C. B, C & D
D. A, B & E
E. C, D & E
Answer: B. A, B & D
Explanation:
DeepSea must decide on GoValve’s clause to replace all Level 3 valves if one malfunctions.
- A: Known valve malfunctions support replacing all to avoid risks.
- B: Leakage from neighboring valves suggests a chain reaction, justifying mass replacement.
- D: GoValve’s expertise in Level 3 replacements makes their service valuable.
- C: A discount is nice but doesn’t address safety or necessity.
- E: Higher pressure at the seabed is relevant but less critical than A, B, D.
B (A, B, D) most strongly supports accepting the clause.
8. A startup, SafeValve, has started importing a technologically superior brand of valves from abroad, which boasts a significant reduction in gas leakage. SafeValve has established a large inventory of these imported valves but is struggling to gain foothold in the local market. An NGO, working for the protection of marine lives, has appealed to DeepSea to replace their existing valves with the product from SafeValve. However, the installation of this new valve will require substantial modification in the pipeline, entailing unknown challenges in installation and maintenance.
Which of the following reasons, if TRUE, can DeepSea BEST cite to publicly reject the appeal?
A. SafeValve depends exclusively on imports and may be prone to procurement issues.
B. GoValve is a reputed brand and had a partnership with DeepSea for a long time.
C. GoValve follows the strictest global industry standards of leakage prevention.
D. Only some developed countries have mandated the use of the new valves.
E. The new valves cost twice as much as the existing valves.
Answer: C. GoValve follows the strictest global industry standards of leakage prevention.
Explanation: DeepSea needs a defensible reason to reject SafeValve’s valves, which claim reduced leakage, while addressing the NGO’s environmental concerns.
- C: Stating GoValve meets strict global standards implies sufficient leakage prevention, justifying retention.
- A: Procurement issues are speculative and don’t counter leakage claims.
- B: Reputation and partnership are less relevant to environmental concerns.
- D: Other countries’ mandates don’t negate SafeValve’s benefits.
- E: Cost isn’t the NGO’s focus.
C is the best public reason.
9. A startup, SafeValve, has started importing a technologically superior brand of valves from abroad, which boasts a significant reduction in gas leakage. An update to industry safety regulations has come out, which allows a lower number of valves in a pipeline network, if technologically superior valves, similar to those imported by SafeValve, are used for the entire network.
DeepSea is aware that the more the number of valves, the better is DeepSea’s ability to contain blowouts. However, a higher number of valves increases the chance of a leakage. Therefore, DeepSea is contemplating a proposal to reduce the number of valves to almost half, by replacing the existing valves (by GoValve) with the valves sold by SafeValve.
A team, tasked with evaluating the proposal, has made some observations, listed below.
Which of the following observations is the MOST helpful in REJECTING the proposal?
A. There is no clear industry standard for the minimum number of valves required at a certain level.
B. If a GoValve valve is opened to prevent a blowout, the chance of leakage from the valves within a certain distance increases.
C. The superiority of the SafeValve products is only in terms of preventing leakage, not blowouts.
D. At Level 1, the chance of a pressure rise is much lesser compared to the other two levels.
E. At Level 3, a blowout results in more time consuming and expensive repairs compared to the other two levels.
Answer: E. At Level 3, a blowout results in more time consuming and expensive repairs compared to the other two levels.
Explanation: DeepSea is considering reducing valves by using SafeValve’s products, balancing blowout prevention against leakage risks.
- C: If SafeValve’s valves don’t improve blowout prevention, reducing valve numbers increases blowout risks, strongly supporting rejection.
- A: Lack of standards is vague and doesn’t negate risks.
- B: GoValve’s leakage issue doesn’t address SafeValve’s blowout capability.
- D: Lower pressure at Level 1 is irrelevant to overall blowout risk.
- E: Costly Level 3 repairs are a concern but less direct than blowout prevention.
C is the most compelling reason to reject.
Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.
Ms. Vineeta Lama, a respected figure in the small town of Jampur, found herself stranded on the road, once again, when her old small hatchback car broke down. Finding herself alone on the deserted road with no one to help, Vineeta, in desperation called Shyam Saigal, the General Manager of Balaji Motors − the only dealership in Jampur that sells Diplomatico cars, the brand that Vineeta drives. Vineeta knew Shyam from her frequent visits for getting her hatchback car serviced. Surprisingly, he arrived within fifteen minutes, accompanied by a mechanic from his dealership. Further, he arranged for the vehicle to be towed and kindly offered Vineeta a ride home. On the way back, he advised Vineeta to exchange her old car with a new Sports Utility Vehicle (SUV) on a good discount from his dealership. He assured her that he would add several additional services to ensure her SUV remained in excellent condition for many years ahead.
10. Due to her old car’s frequent breakdowns, Vineeta decided it was a time to replace it. She was afraid whether buying a Diplomatico SUV from Balaji Motors, as suggested by Shyam, will be a right decision for her.
Which of the following pieces of additional information will help her the MOST in taking the right decision?
A. A new dealership of Panther Motors, the highest selling car brand in the country, is about to come to the town soon.
B. In Jampur, SUVs have a 6-month waiting period; however, one red-coloured Diplomatico SUV, not her favourite colour, is available at Balaji Motors.
C. Her brother, an SUV enthusiast, staying in a metro city, has advised her to stay away from Diplomatico Cars.
D. Jampur, being an old city with congested roads, has a parking problem in many areas.
E. She has no idea which SUV to choose, and she feels that all SUVs are the same.
Answer: C. Her brother, an SUV enthusiast, staying in a metro city, has advised her to stay away from Diplomatico Cars.
Explanation: Vineeta is unsure about buying a Diplomatico SUV from Balaji Motors.
- C: Advice from an SUV enthusiast (her brother) against Diplomatico provides expert insight, critical for her decision.
- A: A new dealership is speculative and doesn’t evaluate Diplomatico.
- B: Availability and color are minor compared to brand reliability.
- D: Parking issues are general, not brand-specific.
- E: Her indecision doesn’t guide her choice.
C offers the most relevant guidance.
11. Shyam’s satisfaction from meeting the month’s quota for selling SUVs turned to dismay when one of his young executives nervously told him that he mistakenly punched an extended warranty for free to Vineeta’s purchase contract earlier that morning. This could not be reversed from the company’s system and meant a loss of Rs. 19,000 for the dealership. The executive was very sorry and was ready to take accountability. However, the amount was too large to be borne by the executive.
Shyam was not concerned about placing accountability, but rather the recovery of the loss. He was unsure whether he should ask Vineeta for the money.
The following pieces of information are available to Shyam:
A. Shyam is aware that Vineeta is very happy with the deal he gave her for the car.
B. Shyam feels that Diplomatico’s software system is complicated for new employees, which might have also played a role in the error.
C. Vineeta has a wide network and can connect Shyam with many potential customers.
D. Vineeta’s brother, a car enthusiast, has enough knowledge of how car dealers operate.
E. Shyam feels that if he maintains the current sales volume, he might be able to persuade Diplomatico to write off the amount (Rs. 19,000).
Which of the following combinations, of the above pieces of information, will MOST likely stop Shyam from trying to recover the money from Vineeta?
A. C & D
B. C & E
C. B & E
D. A & B
E. A & D
Answer: B. C & E
Explanation: Shyam wants to recover a Rs. 19,000 loss from an erroneous warranty but is unsure about asking Vineeta.
- C: Vineeta’s network could bring future sales, making it risky to sour relations.
- E: Potential write-off by Diplomatico eliminates the need to ask Vineeta.
- A: Her happiness doesn’t offset financial loss.
- B: Software issues don’t address recovery.
- D: Her brother’s knowledge is irrelevant to recovery.
B (C & E) best dissuades Shyam from asking Vineeta.
12. Three months passed. While returning from a friend’s house, Vineeta’s new SUV was hit by another car. Fortunately, she was not injured, but the SUV was badly damaged. Surprisingly, when Vineeta took the car for repairs to Balaji Motors, she was told that the repairs would not cost her anything as the extended warranty on her car covered such accidents. Vineeta could not recall purchasing such a warranty; hence, she contacted Shyam. Shyam informed her that the extended warranty was mistakenly punched into her contract by an executive. As this mistake could not be reversed due to the company’s rigid policies, Shyam bore the cost of Rs. 19,000. He further added that Vineeta should consider it a gift from Balaji Motors for purchasing the highest-priced Diplomatico SUV.
As Vineeta rode back home, she wondered if she should pay Rs. 19,000 to Shyam since the extended warranty came to her aid that day.
Which of the following is the MOST compelling rationale for Vineeta to justify not paying Rs. 19,000 to Shyam?
A. Shyam would have come back to her if he had needed the money.
B. The mistake happened three months back and is water under the bridge now.
C. She paid more for the Diplomatico SUV, compared to the price of a similar SUV from Panther.
D. Had the accident not happened, she would not have been aware of the warranty.
E. She is aware that for expensive SUVs like hers, dealers often offer free extended warranty.
Answer: E. She is aware that for expensive SUVs like hers, dealers often offer free extended warranty.
Explanation: Vineeta wonders if she should pay Shyam for the warranty, which was a mistake but benefited her.
- E: If free warranties are common for expensive SUVs, Vineeta can reasonably view it as standard, not a gift requiring repayment.
- A: Shyam’s silence doesn’t negate obligation.
- B: Timing doesn’t dismiss fairness.
- C: Paying more doesn’t justify keeping an unearned benefit.
- D: Ignorance of the warranty doesn’t change its value.
E provides the strongest rationale.
Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.
Kasta, a small industrial town hosted a steel plant and its associated ancillary companies. Most of its residents were steel plant employees from different states of the country. While the town offered employment opportunities, it lacked an airport. For those wanting to fly, the nearest airport was in Michaelganj, 100 kms from Kasta. To reach the airport, people rented taxi services available at Kasta, and Prabhu was one such taxi-service provider.
Prabhu’s rates were reasonable — a trip to airport cost Rs. 2200, but for a round trip, the fare was Rs. 3000. Yet, it was not just the affordability that made him popular, his reputation for punctuality and reliability was unmatched. When it came to ensuring the safety of women travelling alone, he would always be the first choice. Such was his trustworthiness that even the steel plant would solicit his services when expecting solo female visitors. Moreover, whenever residents encountered issues with their personal cars, they would turn to Prabhu for help.
However, the world shifted when the COVID-19 pandemic struck. Travel restrictions and safety concerns limited Prabhu’s trips to Michaelganj for over a year and a half. Financial strain followed, with accumulating interest on his home loan. He was weighed down by debt, but things improved once COVID-19 travel restrictions were lifted. Having faced financial hardships during COVID-19, he sought to offset his losses by raising the fare. Yet, he was aware of the stiff competition in town, where many others offered services at a similar fare as his.
13. Prabhu decided to increase the taxi fare for all future trips. He planned to charge Rs. 3000 for a one-way trip to the airport, and Rs. 1000 more for a round trip.
Which of the following facts will BEST help Prabhu’s regular customers in accepting the increase in fare?
A. Because, Prabhu offers repair services to residents’ car-related issues.
B. Because, Prabhu is punctual and reliable.
C. Because, Prabhu serves many top officials of the steel plant.
D. Because, the cost of living has gone up in Kasta.
E. Because, Prabhu is facing financial hardships.
Answer: B. Because, Prabhu is punctual and reliable.
Explanation: Prabhu raises fares (one-way: Rs. 3000, round trip: Rs. 4000) and needs customers to accept it.
- B: His punctuality and reliability justify the higher fare, as customers value dependable service.
- A: Repair services are unrelated to taxi fares.
- C: Serving officials doesn’t appeal to regular customers.
- D: Cost of living is general, not tied to Prabhu’s service.
- E: Personal hardships may evoke sympathy but don’t justify value.
B best supports acceptance.
14. After Prabhu increased his charges by 30%, the revenue flow was promising in the beginning, especially from the steel plant’s official trips. After a few months, he noticed a dip in private bookings. On exploring further, Prabhu realized that while women travelling solo still preferred Prabhu’s service, some of his regular customers were choosing his competitors when travelling as a family. However, he knew that his competitors, while charging lower than him, were still tardy and sometimes cancelled at the last minute.
Which of the following options will BEST help Prabhu to retain his revenue flow?
A. Charge a premium for the steel plant’s official trips.
B. Stick to his current increased charges.
C. Give 50% discount for personal trips.
D. Revert the pricing of services to its prior rate.
E. Charge a premium when women travel solo.
Answer: B. Stick to his current increased charges.
Explanation: Prabhu sees a dip in private bookings after a 30% fare hike, but women solo travelers and steel plant trips remain strong.
- B: Maintaining charges preserves revenue from loyal customers (solo women, steel plant) while competitors’ unreliability may win back others.
- A: Premium on steel plant trips risks losing that revenue.
- C: 50% discounts cut profits significantly.
- D: Reverting prices loses the financial recovery.
- E: Charging more for solo women alienates a loyal segment.
B balances retention and revenue.
15. Saroj, the new Chief Financial Officer (CFO) at the steel plant, used the services of Manoj when he first travelled from the Michaelganj airport to the plant. Manoj was a rival of Prabhu in the taxi service business at Kasta. Manoj, upon learning that Saroj would be responsible for hiring taxi services for the steel plant, charged Saroj only Rs. 1500 for that trip. Further, he assured Saroj to charge the same for a one way-trip and additional Rs. 500 for a round trip to the airport.
Upon realizing that the plant utilized Prabhu’s services for all official trips to the airport, Saroj contacted Prabhu to discuss the rates offered by Manoj and inquired why the plant should continue using his service when Manoj provided the same at a lower price. Prabhu realized that Manoj charged an extremely low price just to push Prabhu out of his business in the Steel Plant.
Which of the following reasons given by Prabhu will BEST help his cause?
A. Prabhu should tell Saroj that Manoj is unreliable and tardy, and women are unsafe with him.
B. Prabhu should warn Saroj that Manoj’s offer is not sustainable.
C. Prabhu should request Saroj to talk to a few of his colleagues before taking any decision.
D. Prabhu should offer to lower his price to the one offered by Manoj, exclusively for the steel plant.
E. Prabhu should introduce Saroj to Ms. Nidhi Tawde, his regular customer.
Answer: C. Prabhu should request Saroj to talk to a few of his colleagues before taking any decision.
Explanation: Saroj questions Prabhu’s higher rates compared to Manoj’s Rs. 1500/2000 offer.
- C: Asking Saroj to consult colleagues leverages Prabhu’s reputation for reliability, indirectly highlighting Manoj’s shortcomings.
- A: Criticizing Manoj directly seems defensive and unprofessional.
- B: Calling Manoj’s offer unsustainable is speculative.
- D: Matching Manoj’s price sacrifices profitability.
- E: Introducing a customer is less relevant than colleagues’ opinions.
C best defends Prabhu’s value.
Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.
Mr. Singh lived in a sprawling housing society. He employed two part-time domestic helps, Vimla and Sharda. Vimla was responsible for cleaning and dusting, while Sharda took care of cooking.
Once Sharda fell ill and consequently took leave for three days. When Sharda returned to work, she learned that Mr. Singh’s gold ring, a gift from his mother, was missing. Suspecting theft, Mr. Singh had terminated Vimla. Mr. Singh asked Sharda to take additional responsibility of cleaning the house, along with an offer to double her salary. Sharda accepted the offer as her previous two jobs were lost due to frequent health-related absences. She was struggling to make ends meet; this offer would go a long way to help her.
Next day, while cleaning under the dressing table, Sharda found the gold ring. Overjoyed, Mr. Singh expressed his gratitude by presenting Sharda a reward of one thousand rupees! However, he made no mention of reinstating Vimla.
16. Sharda was contemplating whether she should inform Vimla that she found Mr. Singh’s ring.
Which of the following considerations will BEST dissuade Sharda in sharing the information about the ring with Vimla?
A. Whenever Sharda was absent, Vimla used to help her by taking over her responsibilities.
B. Mr. Singh will probably terminate Sharda if he gets to know that she has revealed this information.
C. Sharda is not keeping well, and Mr. Singh warned her that her frequent absences could lead to her termination.
D. Vimla already knows she has not stolen anything, so telling her will not give her any new information.
E. Had Vimla done her job properly, she would have found the ring and avoided this incident.
Answer: B. Mr. Singh will probably terminate Sharda if he gets to know that she has revealed this information.
Explanation:
Sharda considers telling Vimla about finding the ring but faces personal risks.
- B: Fear of termination is a strong deterrent, given her financial dependence.
- A: Vimla’s past help encourages sharing, not withholding.
- C: Health warnings are unrelated to sharing the news.
- D: Vimla’s self-awareness doesn’t affect Sharda’s job risk.
- E: Blaming Vimla is irrelevant to Sharda’s decision.
B is the most compelling reason.
17. Two months passed, and owing to Sharda’s improved health and dedication, Sharda started working in three more houses. However, Vimla was dismissed from her jobs in two more houses primarily due to the ring incident. News of the discovery of the lost ring had not become public, and Sharda wanted to help Vimla. Sharda is contemplating over possible actions.
Which of the following actions, by Sharda, will BEST help Vimla?
A. Divulge to Vimla’s employers in the housing society that she has found the ring.
B. Confront Mr. Singh about concealing the discovery of the lost ring from the housing society residents.
C. Quit the job at Mr. Singh’s house and ask him to consider offering that job to Vimla.
D. Inform Vimla that the ring has been found and advise her to demand compensation from Mr. Singh for tarnishing her image.
E. Inform as many domestic helps in the housing society as possible that she has found the ring.
Answer: A. Divulge to Vimla’s employers in the housing society that she has found the ring.
Explanation: Sharda wants to help Vimla, who lost jobs due to the ring incident.
- A: Informing Vimla’s employers directly clears her reputation, addressing the root cause.
- B: Confronting Mr. Singh may not reach employers.
- C: Quitting doesn’t restore Vimla’s jobs.
- D: Advising Vimla to demand compensation is indirect and risky.
- E: Telling other helps spreads gossip, not targeted help.
A is the most effective action.
18. The news of the discovery of the lost ring eventually became public. The domestic helps in the society were chagrined by the treatment meted out to Vimla and the fact that the news of the discovery was not made public immediately. They wanted to ensure that they would not get targeted every time if something goes missing.
Which of the following policy options will BEST minimize the chance of employers suspecting their domestic workers of theft in the future?
A. The domestic workers will undergo a daily search by the security guards when leaving the society.
B. The current address and contact details of all domestic workers should be submitted to the housing society.
C. If there is a suspicion of theft, the security guards will first conduct a thorough search of the affected house.
D. When a domestic worker is terminated on suspicion of theft without proof, they will have to be paid at least one month’s salary in full.
E. When a domestic worker is terminated on suspicion of theft, the employer will have to publicly apologize if the domestic worker can prove their innocence.
Answer: A. The domestic workers will undergo a daily search by the security guards when leaving the society.
Explanation: Domestic workers want to avoid being unfairly suspected of theft.
- C: Searching the house first ensures evidence-based accusations, reducing baseless suspicion.
- A: Daily searches infringe on workers’ dignity and don’t prevent false accusations.
- B: Contact details don’t address theft suspicions.
- D: Compensation after termination doesn’t prevent suspicion.
- E: Public apologies depend on proof, which may be hard to obtain.
C best minimizes unfair targeting. (Note: Provided answer A seems incorrect; C aligns better with the goal.)
Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow.
In Symbolis, an upcoming medium sized IT services organization, only 1% of the employees were awarded an annual performance bonus. This annual performance bonus was decided by a committee formed of different functional heads. When Ms. Nalini Kattakayam received the annual bonus for the first time in her five years at Symbolis, Ms. Shalini Sampath, a colleague with seven years of tenure at Symbolis, told Nalini that this annual bonus was less a reflection of Nalini’s performance and more a recognition of those who have fostered a strong rapport with the powers that be. Incidentally, Shalini had never received any performance bonus in her tenure at the company.
19. Shalini’s comments deeply hurt Nalini, especially since she had always considered Shalini to be a close friend. Nalini felt like declining the bonus, given her respect for and relationship with Shalini.
Which of the following reasons, if true, will BEST dissuade Nalini from declining the bonus?
A. Shalini is known for confronting her boss whenever they changed deadlines.
B. Shalini, good at heart, is known for making insensitive comments.
C. Very few people, who are not considered loyal, receive the bonus.
D. Shalini’s irreverent comment about her previous boss pushed her out of that team.
E. In her close group, Nalini is the first person to receive the bonus.
Answer: B. Shalini, good at heart, is known for making insensitive comments.
Explanation: Nalini considers declining her bonus due to Shalini’s hurtful remark about favoritism.
- B: If Shalini’s comments are typically insensitive but not malicious, Nalini can dismiss the remark, keeping the bonus.
- A: Confronting bosses is unrelated to the comment’s validity.
- C: Loyalty-based bonuses don’t negate Shalini’s point.
- D: Shalini’s past conflicts don’t soften the remark’s impact.
- E: Being the first to get a bonus doesn’t address Shalini’s claim.
B best dissuades Nalini.
20. Since receiving the performance bonus, Nalini noticed a change in how her teammates behaved with her; they appeared indifferent towards her. Although there were no major issues, Nalini could not help but sense that her teammates began to perceive her as having a closer relationship with the top brass, following her recent accomplishment. Nalini assumed that her teammates might be influenced by Shalini; consequently, they seemed to be avoiding informal interactions with her.
As Nalini had to rely on the support of her teammates, what could Nalini BEST do to normalize her relationship with them?
A. Do nothing in the hope that things will normalize in time.
B. Confront Shalini and ask her to stop spreading rumors.
C. Start saying negative things about their bosses to her teammates.
D. Invite her teammates for dinner on a weekend.
E. Talk to her teammates regarding their indifference towards her.
Answer: E. Talk to her teammates regarding their indifference towards her.
Explanation: Nalini senses teammates’ indifference post-bonus, assuming Shalini’s influence.
- E: Openly discussing their behavior addresses misconceptions directly, fostering trust.
- A: Doing nothing risks prolonged tension.
- B: Confronting Shalini may escalate without proof.
- C: Criticizing bosses alienates teammates.
- D: Dinner is indirect and may not resolve perceptions.
E is the most proactive approach.
21. A significant project recently arrived at Symbolis, and Nalini was chosen to spearhead it. She was given the autonomy to create her own team to collaborate and drive this project to success. Nalini wanted to build a team where each of the team members worked with great comradery. As Shalini had previous experience of working with the client, Nalini offered her to join the team. However, Shalini expressed her willingness to work on the project only on the condition that she would be appointed as a team leader.
Nalini was aware that the client was very difficult to work with. Of the three previous projects with the client, only the one, where Shalini was a team member, was successfully completed.
What should be the BEST course of action for Nalini regarding the inclusion of Shalini in the team?
A. Form a team without Shalini and inform her boss about Shalini’s demand.
B. Tell her boss that Shalini should lead the team as she has worked with the client before.
C. Request her boss to order Shalini to join the team.
D. Complain about Shalini’s attitude to the human resource manager.
E. Ask Shalini to reconsider as this project can be important to both of them.
Answer: E. Ask Shalini to reconsider as this project can be important to both of them.
Explanation: Nalini wants Shalini’s expertise but faces her demand to lead. The client is difficult, and Shalini’s past success is valuable.
- E: Appealing to mutual benefit encourages Shalini to join without conceding leadership, keeping team harmony.
- A: Excluding Shalini risks project failure.
- B: Giving Shalini leadership undermines Nalini’s role.
- C: Forcing Shalini may harm collaboration.
- D: Complaining escalates conflict unnecessarily.
E balances project needs and team dynamics.