QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
1. Efficiency of X is 33.33% more than the sum of efficiencies of Y and Z and efficiency of Z is 83.33% less than the sum of efficiencies of X and Y together. If X and Z together can complete 75% of work in 12 days, then find in how many days Y can complete 130% of total work.
(a) 40
(b) 48
(c) 52
(d) 56
(e) 60
Answer: (c) 52
Solution:
Let efficiencies of X, Y, and Z be $x$, $y$, and $z$.
Given:
$x = \frac{4}{3}(y + z)$ and $z = \frac{1}{6}(x + y)$
From these:
$x = 4z$, $y = 2z$
X and Z complete 75% of work in 12 days:
Work/day by X and Z = $x + z = 4z + z = 5z$
So,
$$ 12 \times 5z = 75 \Rightarrow z = \frac{5}{4}$$
Then $y = 2z = \frac{5}{2}$
130% of work = 130 units (assuming total work = 100 units)
Time taken by Y:
$$\frac{130}{\frac{5}{2}} = \frac{130 \times 2}{5} = 52 \text{ days}$$
Correct option: (c) 52
2. Highest root of the equation $6x^2 + 13x + 6 = 0$ is n, then find the value of $125^n$.
(a) $\frac{1}{25}$
(b) 0.50
(c) 5
(d) $\frac{1}{5}$
(e) 25
Answer: (a) $\frac{1}{25}$
Solution:
We are given the quadratic equation:
$$ 6x^2 + 13x + 6 = 0 $$
Using the quadratic formula:
$$ x = \frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2 – 4ac}}{2a}$$
Here, $a = 6$, $b = 13$, $c = 6$
Discriminant:
$$ D = 13^2 – 4 \cdot 6 \cdot 6 = 169 – 144 = 25$$
Now find the roots:
$$x = \frac{-13 \pm \sqrt{25}}{2 \cdot 6} = \frac{-13 \pm 5}{12}$$
So, the roots are:
$$ x_1 = \frac{-13 + 5}{12} = \frac{-8}{12} = -\frac{2}{3}$$
$$x_2 = \frac{-13 – 5}{12} = \frac{-18}{12} = -\frac{3}{2}$$
The highest root $n = -\frac{2}{3}$
Now compute:
$$ 125^n = 125^{-\frac{2}{3}} = (5^3)^{-\frac{2}{3}} = 5^{-2} = \frac{1}{25}$$
Final Answer: $\boxed{\frac{1}{25}}$
Directions (3-6): In the following questions, two statements are numbered as A and B. On solving these statements, we get quantities A and B respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.
(a) Quantity A ≥ Quantity B
(b) Quantity A ≤ Quantity B
(c) Quantity A < Quantity B
(d) Quantity A > Quantity B
(e) Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation
3.
Quantity A: $(x – 6) (2x – 5)2^{2n} = 0,$ n= smallest whole number
Quantity B: $ y^3 = 343$
Answer: (c) Quantity A < Quantity B
Solution:
Solving $(x – 6)(2x – 5)2^{2n} = 0$ gives the smallest whole number:
$$ x = 6 $$
Given $y^3 = 343$, solving gives:
$$ y = 7 $$
Since $6 < 7$,
Correct Answer:(c) Quantity A < Quantity B
4. Ratio of water to juice in a mixture A is 9:7. 80 liters of this mixture is taken out, and the remaining mixture is named as mixture B. When 8 liters of water is added to B, then a new mixture C is formed in which the ratio of juice to water becomes 5:7.
Quantity A: Find the quantity of water in mixture B.
Quantity B: 91 liters
Answer: (c) Quantity A < Quantity B
Solution:
Mixture A (Water:Juice = 9:7), Total = 80 L.
Water in A:
$$ \frac{9}{16} \times 80 = 45 \text{ L} $$
After removing 80 L, remaining water in B = 0 L.
Given Quantity B = 91 L,
Correct Answer:(c) Quantity A < Quantity B
5. P and Q started a business with initial investments of Rs. (x + y), (y − x). After 4 months, P increased his investment by Rs. 2000. After 6 months from the start, R joined them with an investment of Rs. (2x − y). If at the end of the year the ratio of profit of P to that of Q and R together is 7:3,
Quantity A: 30% of (15y − 90x)
Quantity B: Find the value of double the initial investment of R, if the profit share of Q and R is equal and x + y = 35000.
Answer: (d) Quantity A > Quantity B
Solution:
Given:
– P’s investment: $(x + y)$ for 12 months, increased by 2000 after 4 months.
– Q’s investment: $(y – x)$ for 12 months.
– R’s investment: $(2x – y)$ for 6 months.
– Profit-sharing ratio: $P : (Q + R) = 7:3$.
– x + y = 35000$.
Step 1: Compute Effective Investments
P’s total investment months:
$$ 4(x + y) + 8(x + y + 2000) = 12(x + y) + 16000 $$
Q + R’s total investment months:
$$ 12(y – x) + 6(2x – y) = 6y $$
Using profit ratio:
$$ \frac{12(x + y) + 16000}{6y} = \frac{7}{3} $$
Solving for $y$:
$$ 36(x + y) + 48000 = 42y $$
$$ 36x + 48000 = 6y \Rightarrow y = 6x + 8000 $$
Using $x + y = 35000$:
$$ x + (6x + 8000) = 35000 \Rightarrow 7x = 27000 \Rightarrow x = 3857.14 $$
Step 2: Compute Quantities
Quantity A: $ 30% \text{ of } (15y – 90x) = 0.3(120000) = 36000 $
Quantity B: $ 2(2x – y) = -8x – 16000 $
Substituting $x = 3857.14$: $ -8(3857.14) – 16000 = -46857.14 $
Since $36000 > -46857.14$,
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Quantity A > Quantity B.
6.
Quantity A: Find the area (in cm2cm^2cm2) of a square whose area is equal to the area of a rectangle and the sum of sides of the square and width of the rectangle is 20 cm more than the length of the rectangle, and the perimeter of the rectangle is 40 cm.
Quantity B: Area of a circle is more than or equal to the area of a rectangle of sides 32 cm and 2 cm.
Answer: (b) Quantity B ≥ Quantity A
Solution:
Given:
– s + w = 20, Perimeter of rectangle = 40, so l + w = 20
– Square’s area = Rectangle’s area, i.e., $s^2 = lw$
Step 1: Compute Square’s Area
Using $s = 20 – w$ and $s^2 = lw$:
$$ (20 – w)^2 = w(20 – w) $$
Solving the quadratic equation:
$$ w = 10, \quad s = 10 $$
Thus, Area of square = $10^2 = 100$ cm$^2$
Step 2: Compute Quantity B (Circle’s Area)
Rectangle area = $32 \times 2 = 64$ cm$^2$
Since B is the area of a circle ≥ 100, we have: $$ \text{Quantity B} \geq 100 $$
Step 3: Compare Quantities
Since: $ \text{Quantity B} \geq 100 \geq 100 $
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Quantity B ≥ Quantity A
Directions (7-8): Consider the following number series and answer the questions based on it.
1, ?, 2, 18, 1152, 720000
7. If a is the missing term of the series, then what is the value of 75% of a?
(a) 1.75
(b) 2
(c) 1.25
(d) 0.75
(e) 1.50
Answer: (d) 0.75
Solution:
Series: $1,\ ?, 2,\ 18,\ 1152,\ 720000$
Observe pattern:
$$ 2 \times 3^2 = 18,\quad 18 \times 4^3 = 1152,\quad 1152 \times 5^4 = 720000 $$
So, backward:
$$ a \times 2^1 = 2 \Rightarrow a = 1 $$
75% of $a$: $ 0.75 \times 1 = 0.75 $
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 0.75
8. Find the value of 6b if the ratio of b and a = 2:3
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 12
(e) 18
Answer: (c) 4
Solution:
Given $\frac{b}{a} = \frac{2}{3}$ and $a = 1$, so:
$$ b = \frac{2}{3},\quad 6b = 6 \times \frac{2}{3} = 4 $$
Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 4
Directions (9-10): Find the wrong number.
9. 4.6, 11.5, 13.8, 34.5, 103.5, 362.25, 1449
(a) 13.8
(b) 11.5
(c) 362.25
(d) 103.5
(e) 34.5
Answer: (b) 11.5
10. 2.2, 28.6, 2.6, 18.2, 3.64, 7.28, 5.46
(a) 7.28
(b) 3.64
(c) 28.6
(d) 5.46
(e) 18.2
Answer: (a) 7.28
11. In a class, there are (a+10) number of students whose average weight is 40 kg. If b more students having an average weight of 48 kg are added, then the average weight of the class is increased by 2. If (b+5) students having an average weight of 44 kg are added, then the average weight of the class is increased by 1.6. Find the value of 3(a+b).
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 15
(d) 45
(e) 60
Answer: (b) 30
Solution:
Let original students = $a + 10$, avg = 40
Total weight = $40(a + 10)$
Case 1: Add $b$ students (avg 48), new avg = 42
$$ \frac{40(a + 10) + 48b}{a + 10 + b} = 42 $$
Solving gives: $ -2a + 6b = 20 \quad \text{(1)} $
Case 2: Add $(b + 5)$ students (avg 44), new avg = 41.6
$$ \frac{40(a + 10) + 44(b + 5)}{a + b + 15} = 41.6 $$
Solving gives: $ -1.6a + 2.4b = 4 \quad \text{(2)} $
Multiply (2) by 5: $ -8a + 12b = 20 $
Multiply (1) by 2: $ -4a + 12b = 40 $
Subtract: $ -4a = -20 \Rightarrow a = 5 $
Substitute in (1): $-2(5) + 6b = 20 \Rightarrow b = 5 $
Now: $ 3(a + b) = 3(10) = 30 $
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 30
12. The sum of 4 consecutive even numbers is (x+12), and there are 4 consecutive odd numbers in which the 2nd highest number is 37 more than the 2nd lowest even number in the previous series. The sum of the highest number of both series is 105. Find the value of x.
(a) 124
(b) 120
(c) 112
(d) 116
(e) 128
Answer: (d) 116
Solution:
Let the 4 consecutive even numbers be:
$$ a,\ a+2,\ a+4,\ a+6 $$
Sum = $x + 12 \Rightarrow 4a + 12 = x + 12 \Rightarrow x = 4a \quad \text{(1)}$
Let 4 consecutive odd numbers be:
$$ b,\ b+2,\ b+4,\ b+6 $$
Given:
– $b + 4 = a + 2 + 37 \Rightarrow b = a + 35$
– Highest even = $a + 6$, highest odd = $b + 6$
– $(a + 6) + (b + 6) = 105$
Substitute $b = a + 35$: $ a + 6 + a + 35 + 6 = 105 \Rightarrow 2a + 47 = 105 \Rightarrow a = 29 $
Now, from (1):
$$ x = 4a = 4 \times 29 = 116 $$
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 116
13. The ratio of ages of J and K before 6 years was 2:3. Then the ratio of the ages of J and K after 10 years becomes 3:4. If the age of L is 1.5 times the present age of K, then find the age of L 12 years ago.
(a) 65
(b) 69
(c) 72
(d) 67
(e) 70
Answer: (b) 69
Solution:
Let the present ages of J and K be $j$ and $k$ respectively.
Given 1:
6 years ago, ratio of their ages = 2:3
So:
$$ \frac{j – 6}{k – 6} = \frac{2}{3} \Rightarrow 3(j – 6) = 2(k – 6) $$
$$ 3j – 18 = 2k – 12 \Rightarrow 3j – 2k = 6 \quad \text{(1)} $$
Given 2:
10 years later, ratio of their ages = 3:4
So:
$$ \frac{j + 10}{k + 10} = \frac{3}{4} \Rightarrow 4(j + 10) = 3(k + 10) $$
$$ 4j + 40 = 3k + 30 \Rightarrow 4j – 3k = -10 \quad \text{(2)} $$
Solving (1) and (2):
From (1): $ 3j – 2k = 6 $
From (2): $ 4j – 3k = -10 $
Multiply (1) by 3: $ 9j – 6k = 18 $
Multiply (2) by 2: $ 8j – 6k = -20 $
Subtract: $ (9j – 6k) – (8j – 6k) = 18 – (-20) $
$$ j = 38 $$
Substitute in (1): $ 3(38) – 2k = 6 \Rightarrow 114 – 2k = 6 \Rightarrow 2k = 108 \Rightarrow k = 54 $
Now:
Age of L = $1.5 \times k = 1.5 \times 54 = 81$
L’s age 12 years ago = $81 – 12 = 69$
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 69
14. A sum of Rs. P is distributed among A, B, C, and D. A received Rs. 4000, and the amount received by A is 40% of that by D. The ratio of the amount received by C and D is 1:4, and B received 60% of the amount received by C. Find the value of P.
(a) 15000
(b) 12000
(c) 24000
(d) 16000
(e) 18000
Answer: (e) 18000
Solution:
Given:
– A received = Rs. 4000
– A = 40% of D → $4000 = 0.4 \times D \Rightarrow D = \frac{4000}{0.4} = 10000$
– C : D = 1 : 4 → $C = \frac{1}{4} \times 10000 = 2500$
– B = 60% of C → $B = 0.6 \times 2500 = 1500$
Now, total sum:
$$ P = A + B + C + D = 4000 + 1500 + 2500 + 10000 = 18000 $$
Therefore, the correct answer is (e) 18000
Directions (15-17): In this question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and find out the correct option.
(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x ≥ y
(d) x ≤ y
(e) x = y or no relationship could be established
15.
I. $x^2 – 5frac{1}{2}x + 7frac{1}{2} = 0$
II. $\frac{1}{1} = 2y – 2$
$y^2 – 2y + 1.75$
Answer: (a) x > y
Solution:
Equation (I): $x^2 – 5\dfrac{1}{2}x + 7\dfrac{1}{2} = 0$
$\Rightarrow x^2 – \dfrac{11}{2}x + \dfrac{15}{2} = 0$
Multiply through by 2:
$$2x^2 – 11x + 15 = 0$$
Using the quadratic formula:
$$x = \dfrac{11 \pm \sqrt{(-11)^2 – 4 \cdot 2 \cdot 15}}{2 \cdot 2} = \dfrac{11 \pm \sqrt{121 – 120}}{4} = \dfrac{11 \pm 1}{4}$$
So,
$$x = \dfrac{12}{4} = 3 \quad \text{and} \quad x = \dfrac{10}{4} = 2.5$$
Equation (II): $\dfrac{1}{2} = 2y – 2$
$$\Rightarrow 2y = \dfrac{5}{2} \Rightarrow y = \dfrac{5}{4} = 1.25$$ Comparison:
Values of $x$: 2.5 and 3
Value of $y$: 1.25
Since both values of $x > y$, we conclude:
Answer: (a) $x > y$
16.
I. $x^2 – 4sqrt{7}x + 21 = 0$
II. $2y^2 – 8sqrt{5}x – 50 = 0$
Answer: (e) x = y or no relationship could be established
Solution:
Equation I: $x^2 – 4\sqrt{7}x + 21 = 0$
Using quadratic formula:
$x = \dfrac{4\sqrt{7} \pm \sqrt{(4\sqrt{7})^2 – 4(1)(21)}}{2}$
$= \dfrac{4\sqrt{7} \pm \sqrt{112 – 84}}{2} = \dfrac{4\sqrt{7} \pm \sqrt{28}}{2}$
$= \dfrac{4\sqrt{7} \pm 2\sqrt{7}}{2} = \{ \sqrt{7},\ 3\sqrt{7} \} \approx \{2.65,\ 7.95\}$
Equation II: $2y^2 – 8\sqrt{5}y – 50 = 0$
Divide by 2: $y^2 – 4\sqrt{5}y – 25 = 0$
Solving:
$y = \dfrac{4\sqrt{5} \pm \sqrt{(4\sqrt{5})^2 + 4 \cdot 25}}{2}$
$= \dfrac{4\sqrt{5} \pm \sqrt{80 + 100}}{2} = \dfrac{4\sqrt{5} \pm \sqrt{180}}{2}$
$= \dfrac{4\sqrt{5} \pm 6\sqrt{5}}{2} = \{ -\sqrt{5},\ 5\sqrt{5} \} \approx \{ -2.24,\ 11.18\}$
Comparing:
$x = \{2.65,\ 7.95\}$ and $y = \{-2.24,\ 11.18\}$
No consistent relationship can be established.
Answer: (e) $x \neq y$ or no relationship could be established
17.
$text{(I) } x^2 – 37sqrt{2}x + 140 = 0$
$text{(II) } y^2 + 13sqrt{3}y + 120 = 0$
Answer: (a) $x > y$
Solution:
Equation I: $x^2 – 37\sqrt{2}x + 140 = 0$
Using quadratic formula:
$x = \dfrac{37\sqrt{2} \pm \sqrt{(37\sqrt{2})^2 – 4(1)(140)}}{2}$
$= \dfrac{37\sqrt{2} \pm \sqrt{2738 – 560}}{2} = \dfrac{37\sqrt{2} \pm \sqrt{2178}}{2}$
Approximate values: $x \approx \dfrac{52.32 \pm 46.67}{2} \Rightarrow x \approx 49.49,\ 2.83$
Equation II: $y^2 + 13\sqrt{3}y + 120 = 0$
Use quadratic formula:
$y = \dfrac{-13\sqrt{3} \pm \sqrt{(13\sqrt{3})^2 – 4(1)(120)}}{2}$
$= \dfrac{-13\sqrt{3} \pm \sqrt{507 – 480}}{2} = \dfrac{-13\sqrt{3} \pm \sqrt{27}}{2}$ $= \dfrac{-13\sqrt{3} \pm 3\sqrt{3}}{2} = \left\{ \dfrac{-10\sqrt{3}}{2},\ \dfrac{-16\sqrt{3}}{2} \right\} = \{-5\sqrt{3},\ -8\sqrt{3}\}$
$\Rightarrow y \approx -8.66,\ -13.86$ Comparing:
$x = \{2.83,\ 49.49\}$ and $y = \{-8.66,\ -13.86\}$
So clearly $x > y$
Answer: (a) $x > y$
Directions (18-21): Study the following data given in the Pie Chart and answer the questions.
The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total cost of a company to make a unit of a product. The total revenue of the company is Rs. 156250 by selling all the products.
A. Information regarding one unit product is given:
- Gross profit = Total revenue – Total cost
- Net profit = Gross profit – Tax
- Tax = 20% of Gross profit
- Net profit/unit = Rs. 1000
- Advertisement cost is Rs. 50 more than the tax value.
B. Unit sold = 50
C. Selling price is the same for all the units.
18. Find the difference between the total cost of 20 units and the total advertisement cost of 30 units.
(a) 30500
(b) 25000
(c) 28500
(d) 27000
(e) 26500
Answer: (c) 28500
Solution:
Advertisement cost per unit = Rs. 300
Total cost per unit = Rs. 1875
Total cost of 20 units = $1875 \times 20 = 37500$
Advertisement cost of 30 units = $300 \times 30 = 9000$
Required difference = $37500 – 9000 = 28500$
19. If no tax is deducted, then find the sum of the packaging cost of 10 units and the net profit earned by selling those items.
(a) 14900.75
(b) 15200.25
(c) 14755.25
(d) 14843.75
(e) 15900
Answer: (d) 14843.75
Solution:
From the given:
Advertisement cost = $\dfrac{300}{1875} \times 100 = 16\%$
Now, total percentage of other parts:
Let packaging = $a\%$
Then,
$2a + a + a – 1 = 100 – (35 + 16)$
$\Rightarrow 4a = 49 + 1 = 50$
$\Rightarrow a = \dfrac{50}{4} = 12.5\%$
Packaging cost per unit = $12.5\%$ of Rs. 1875
$$= \dfrac{12.5}{100} \times 1875 = 234.375$$
For 10 units: $234.375 \times 10 = 2343.75$
Net profit per unit without tax = Rs. 1250
For 10 units: $1250 \times 10 = 12500$
Total = $2343.75 + 12500 = 14843.75$
Answer: (d) 14843.75
20. If manufacturing one unit of an item requires 15 kg of material, which consists of P material and Q material. If per kg of P material costs Rs. 30 and the total cost of P material is Rs. 300, then find the per kg cost of Q material.
(a) 70.5
(b) 71.25
(c) 65.75
(d) 68.5
(e) 72
Answer: (b) 71.25
Solution:
Total cost of material per unit = $1875 \times \dfrac{35}{100} = 656.25$
Cost of 10 kg P material = Rs. 300
So, weight of Q material = $15 – 10 = 5$ kg
Cost of Q material = $656.25 – 300 = 356.25$
Per kg cost of Q material = $\dfrac{356.25}{5} = 71.25$
21. If the selling price per unit is increased by 40% and the gross profit remains the same, then find the difference between the new advertisement cost of 4 items and the previous advertisement cost of 4 items.
(a) 400
(b) 600
(c) 800
(d) 200
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) 800
Solution:
Old SP per unit = Rs. 3125
Increased SP = $3125 \times \dfrac{140}{100} = 4375$
New Cost Price = $4375 – 1250 = 3125$
Old Cost Price = 1875
Advertisement percentage = 16%
Required difference = $\left[(3125 – 1875) \times \dfrac{16}{100}\right] \times 4$
$= (1250 \times \dfrac{16}{100}) \times 4 = 200 \times 4 = 800$
22. A sum of Rs. PPP is invested for t years at 12% simple rate of interest, while another sum of Rs. ‘P + 1200’ is invested for 2 years at 20% annual rate of compound interest such that the total interest amount received from both schemes is Rs. 6768. If sum PPP when invested for t years at 10% simple rate of interest gives 3000 as interest, then find the amount received from Rs. (P + 1200).
(a) 9832
(b) 10368
(c) 8932
(d) 9560
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) 10368
Solution:
Total interest received = Rs. 6768
Also given:
$P$ invested at $10\%$ SI for $t$ years gives Rs. 3000 as interest:
$\text{SI} = \dfrac{P \cdot 10 \cdot t}{100} = 3000 \Rightarrow Pt = 30000 \quad \text{(Equation 1)}$
Now, interest from first scheme at $12\%$ SI:
$\text{SI}_1 = \dfrac{P \cdot 12 \cdot t}{100} = \dfrac{12}{10} \cdot \dfrac{Pt}{100} = \dfrac{12}{10} \cdot \dfrac{30000}{100} = 3600$
So, CI from second scheme = $6768 – 3600 = 3168$
Using CI formula for 2 years:
$ \text{CI} = (P + 1200) \left(1 + \dfrac{20}{100} \right)^2 – (P + 1200) = (P + 1200)(1.44 – 1) = 0.44(P + 1200)$
Now, $0.44(P + 1200) = 3168 \Rightarrow P + 1200 = \dfrac{3168}{0.44} = 7200$
Therefore, $\text{Amount received} = P + 1200 + \text{CI} = 7200 + 3168 = \boxed{10368}$
23. Two persons A and B started a partnership with initial capitals of Rs. 20000 and Rs. 30000, respectively, and after 4 months, B took out 50% of his capital, and after 2 more months, C joined them with initial capital of Rs. 36000. If the difference between the total annual profit of A and C is Rs. 1800, then the total annual profit of A and B together is how much more than the annual profit of C alone?
(a) 19832
(b) 18360
(c) 19500
(d) 19800
(e) 18944
Answer: (d) 19800
Solution:
Let total profit be Rs. $P$
A’s investment: ₹ 20000 for 12 months
$$ \text{A’s share} = 20000 \times 12 = 240000$$
B’s investment:
– ₹ 30000 for 4 months → $30000 \times 4 = 120000$
– ₹ 15000 for 8 months → $15000 \times 8 = 120000$
So total = $120000 + 120000 = 240000$
C’s investment:₹ 36000 for 6 months
$$\text{C’s share} = 36000 \times 6 = 216000$$
Total ratio = A : B : C = $ 240000 : 240000 : 216000 = 40 : 40 : 36$
Simplified: $ 10 : 10 : 9$
Let total profit = $P$
Then shares:
A = $\dfrac{10}{29}P$
C = $\dfrac{9}{29}P$
Given: $\left(\dfrac{10}{29}P – \dfrac{9}{29}P\right) = 1800 \Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{29}P = 1800 \Rightarrow P = 1800 \times 29 = 52200$ Now:
A’s profit = $\dfrac{10}{29} \times 52200 = 18000$
B’s profit = same as A = ₹ 18000
C’s profit = $\dfrac{9}{29} \times 52200 = 16200$
Required: (A + B) − C = $18000 + 18000 – 16200 = \boxed{19800}$
Directions (24-27): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give an answer.
(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(e) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
24. Set P contains four consecutive odd numbers, while set Q contains six consecutive even numbers. Find the sum of the largest numbers from both the sets.
Statement I: Largest number of set P is 1 less than the smallest number of set Q.
Statement II: Sum of the smallest number from both the sets together is 29.
Answer: (d) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Solution:
Let set P be: $x, x+2, x+4, x+6$ (4 consecutive odd numbers)
Set Q be: $y, y+2, y+4, y+6, y+8, y+10$ (6 consecutive even numbers)
Largest in P = $x+6$
Largest in Q = $y+10$
From I: $x+6 = y – 1 \Rightarrow x = y – 7$
From II: $x + y = 29$
Substitute $x = y – 7$:
$y – 7 + y = 29 \Rightarrow 2y = 36 \Rightarrow y = 18, x = 11$
Largest in P = $11 + 6 = 17$, Largest in Q = $18 + 10 = 28$
Sum = $17 + 28 = 45$
Both statements needed.
25. Ratio of the marked price of item Y to the selling price of item X is 5:4. Then find the profit earned after selling item X.
Statement I: 20% discount offered on item X and total profit amount earned after selling both the items together is Rs. 130.
Statement II: Profit % earned after selling item Y is 16.66% and the marked-up percent on item Y is 66.66%.
Answer: (e) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Solution:
From I: We get discount on X and total profit of both, but we don’t know cost price of either item, so not sufficient.
From II:
– Profit % on X is given(16.66%), but no value of SP or CP is provided.
– Marked-up % on Y is irrelevant since we need profit on X.
Neither statement alone nor together gives sufficient data to find actual profit on X.
26. When the length of a rectangle was increased by 20% and breadth remains constant, then the area was increased by 100 sq. cm. What is the perimeter of the rectangle?
Statement I: After increasing the length, the rectangle becomes a square.
Statement II: After increasing the length, all the angles of the rectangle become 90 degrees.
Answer: (a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Solution:
Only Statement I is meaningful.
Let breadth = $b$, original length = $l$, new length = $1.2l$
Given new shape is square → $1.2l = b$
Now area increases by 100 cm²
Original area = $l \cdot b = l \cdot 1.2l = 1.2l^2$
Can compute dimensions and perimeter.
Statement II is generic and always true for rectangle.
So, only Statement I is sufficient.
27. Raj invested a sum of Rs. 80,000 in scheme P offering simple interest. What is the interest earned by him after 2 years?
Statement I: If Kamal had invested the same money for the same time at the same rate of interest but compounded annually, he would have gained Rs. 1800 more.
Statement II: Scheme Q offers an interest rate of 10%, compounded annually. If Kamal had invested the money partially in Scheme P and rest in Scheme Q, then the interest earned by him after 2 years will be Rs. 15600.
Answer: (a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Solution:
From I:
– Let rate be $r\%$
– CI – SI = 1800
We can use formula for CI and SI and solve for rate, then calculate SI.
So, Statement I alone is sufficient
From II:
Kamal’s interest in Q scheme (CI) doesn’t help find SI in P.Not sufficient.
28. Downstream distance covered by boat A in ‘t − 5’ hours is the same as the upstream distance covered by it in ‘t + 5’ hours. If the speed of boat A in still water is 96.1 km/h and the speed of the stream is 7.5 km/h, then find the downstream distance covered by boat A in ‘t + 4’ hours.
(a) 230
(b) 234
(c) 220
(d) 204
(e) 194
Answer: (b) 234
Solution:
Speed of boat in still water = 96.1 km/h
Speed of stream = 7.5 km/h
Downstream speed = $103.6$ km/h
Upstream speed = $88.6$ km/h
Given:
$103.6(t – 5) = 88.6(t + 5)$
Solving:
$t = \dfrac{4805}{75} = 64.07$ Downstream distance in $(t + 4)$ hours:
$= 103.6 \times (64.07 + 4) = 103.6 \times 68.07 \approx \boxed{234}$
Directions (29-33): What approximate value should come in the place of the ? mark?
29. $?^2 times 18.66 – 384.76 = 8.32^3 + 229.28$
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 8
(d) 12
(e) 15
Answer: (c) 8
Solution:
$8.32^3 \approx 576$
So RHS ≈ $576 + 229.28 = 805.28$
LHS: $?^2 \times 18.66 – 384.76 = 805.28$
$\Rightarrow ?^2 \times 18.66 = 1190.04$
$\Rightarrow ?^2 = \dfrac{1190.04}{18.66} \approx 63.8$
$\Rightarrow ? \approx \sqrt{64} = 8$
30. 29.89% of 298 + 44.71% of 197 = $sqrt{?}$ + 163.55
(a) 256
(b) 248
(c) 272
(d) 304
(e) 236
Answer: (a) 256
Solution:
$\dfrac{30}{100} \times 300 + \dfrac{45}{100} \times 200 = \sqrt{?} + 164$
$\dfrac{30}{100} \times 300 = 90$
$\dfrac{45}{100} \times 200 = 90$
LHS = $90 + 90 = 180$
Now,
$180 = \sqrt{?} + 164$
$\Rightarrow \sqrt{?} = 180 – 164 = 16$
$\Rightarrow ? = 16^2 = \boxed{256}$
31. $48..42 times 10.25 + 3.18 + 34.401^2 = ? times 47.22 $
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 24
(d) 28
(e) 39
Answer: (b) 35
Solution:
$48.42 \times 10.25 \approx 496$
$34.401^2 \approx 1183$
LHS ≈ $496 + 3.18 + 1183 = 1682.18$
$\Rightarrow ? = \dfrac{1682.18}{47.22} \approx 35.6$
32. $sqrt{2301} times 18.25 + sqrt{(18.34 + 16.27 + 3.44 times 4.98)}$
(a) 847
(b) 863
(c) 851
(d) 871
(e) 856
Answer: (d) 871
Solution:
$\sqrt{2301} \approx 48$
First part: $48 \times 18.25 = 876$
Second part: $3.44 \times 4.98 \approx 17.1$
Inside root = $18.34 + 16.27 + 17.1 \approx 51.7$
So second part = $\sqrt{51.7} \approx 7.2$
Total ≈ $876 + 7.2 = 883.2$ → Closest: (d) 871
33. $left(sqrt{15.03 + sqrt{24.99}}^2 + 141.07 – 2sqrt{396}right) = ?^2 – 107$
(a) 31
(b) 23
(c) 17
(d) 21
(e) 13
Answer: (c) 17
Solution:
$\sqrt{15.03} \approx 3.88$, $\sqrt{24.99} \approx 5$
Sum = $8.88$, Square = $78.9$
$2\sqrt{396} \approx 2 \times 19.9 = 39.8$
LHS ≈ $78.9 + 141.07 – 39.8 = 180.2$
RHS = $?^2 – 107$
$\Rightarrow ?^2 = 287.2 \Rightarrow ? \approx \sqrt{287.2} \approx 17$
Directions (34-38): Study the following line chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.
The table given below shows the data about the number of articles (Professional + Traditional) purchased by Ekansh and Vaayan together in three different years.
Note: Traditional items purchased by Ekansh and Vaayan together in 2021, 2022, and 2023 are 38, 88, and 114 respectively.
| Years | Total Items (Professional) | Ekansh | Vaayan | Professional | ||
| + Traditional purchased by Ekansh and Vaayan | + Traditional items GI purchased by Vaayan | |||||
| Professional | Traditional | Professional | Traditional | |||
| 2021 | 100 | —- | 2P | 3P | —- | 50 |
| 2022 | 150 | —- | 3P | —- | —- | 70 |
| 2023 | 231 | a | 5P | —- | b | 99 |
34. Find which one is true.
I. b = 75% of a
II. a = 6P
III. b = 2P + 28
(a) Only I
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and III
(d) I and II
Answer: (d) I and II
Solution:
I. $b = 75\%$ of $a \Rightarrow b = \dfrac{75}{100} \times 72 = 54$
II. $a = 6P \Rightarrow 6 \times 12 = 72$
III. $b = 2P + 28 = 2 \times 12 + 28 = 52$ (not equal to 54)
35. Out of the total professional items purchased by Vaayan in 2022, Graphics and Metaphors were purchased in the ratio 5:4. If only 20% of the Graphics items were used by him in that year, then find the difference between the number of unused Graphics items in 2022 by Vaayan and the number of traditional items purchased by Ekansh in 2023.
(a) 64
(b) 56
(c) 52
(d) 48
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) 52
36. If the number of professional items purchased by Ekansh in 2024 is 50% more than that purchased by him in 2022, then find the number of professional items sold by Ekansh in 2024 is what percent of the total traditional items purchased by Vaayan in 2021 and 2023 together?
(a) 98.50%
(b) 97.05%
(c) 95.25%
(d) 94%
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) 97.05%
Solution:
37. If out of the total traditional items purchased by Ekansh in 2023, 30% are used in household and the rest are used as gifts, out of the total gift items, the ratio of the number of gifts given to males and females is 3:4, then find the number of traditional gift items given to females by Ekansh in 2023.
(a) 36
(b) 32
(c) 28
(d) 24
(e) None of these
Answer: (d) 24
Solution:
Traditional items by Ekansh in 2023 = 60
Used as gifts = $70\%$ of 60 = $42$
Male : Female = $3 : 4 \Rightarrow$ Total = 7 parts
Female share = $\dfrac{4}{7} \times 42 = 24$
38. Find the difference between the average of traditional items purchased by Vaayan in all the years and the average of professional items purchased by Ekansh in all the years together.
(a) $frac{24}{3}$
(b) $frac{22}{3}$
(c) 7
(d) $frac{29}{3}$
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) $\frac{22}{3}$
Solution:
Average traditional items (Vaayan) = $\dfrac{14 + 52 + 54}{3} = 40$
Average professional items (Ekansh) = $\dfrac{26 + 44 + 72}{3} = \dfrac{142}{3}$ Difference = $\dfrac{142 – 120}{3} = \dfrac{22}{3}$
Directions (39-43): Study the following data given in the Pie Chart and table and answer the questions.
The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the number of Employees = 50000 (Private + Govt.) in four different cities. The table shows the number of private employees in each city.
Note:
- The ratio of private employees in Q and government employees in R is 3:4.
- The number of private employees in P is double the number of government employees in R.
39. If out of the total number of government employees in city P, 45% work for 12 hours daily and the rest work for 8 hours daily, and out of the total private employees in city Q, 55% work for 11 hours daily and the rest work for 9 hours daily, then find the total hours in a week worked by government employees in city P and private employees in city Q.
(a) 356200
(b) 345600
(c) 349300
(d) 329500
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) 349300
Solution:
Govt. employees in City P = 2000
Work: $45\%$ do 12 hrs/day, $55\%$ do 8 hrs/day
Pvt. employees in City Q = 3000
Work: $55\%$ do 11 hrs/day, $45\%$ do 9 hrs/day
Weekly hours = $7 \times \left[(2000 \times \dfrac{45}{100} \times 12 + 2000 \times \dfrac{55}{100} \times 8) + (3000 \times \dfrac{55}{100} \times 11 + 3000 \times \dfrac{45}{100} \times 9)\right]$ $$ = 7 \times (10800 + 8800 + 18150 + 12150) = 7 \times 49900 = \boxed{3,49,300 \text{ hours}}$$
40. If 20% of the total employees of city S are transferred to city T and the pie chart is formed using the previous data (except S), then find the central angle of city T.
(a) $30.2^circ$
(b) $25.6^circ$
(c) $27^circ$
(d) $28.8^circ$
(e) None of these
Answer: (d) $28.8^\circ$
Solution:
Transferred employees = $20\%$ of $20000 = 4000$
Central angle: $\theta = \dfrac{4000}{50000} \times 360^\circ = 28.8^\circ$
41. The number of government employees in city R is approximately how much percentage less than the total number of private employees in city P and S together?
(a) 75%
(b) 70%
(c) 72%
(d) 64%
(e) None of these
Answer: (a) 75%
Solution:
Govt. employees in City R = 4000
Total Pvt. employees in P and S = $8000 + 8000 = 16000$
Required percentage: $ \dfrac{16000 – 4000}{16000} \times 100 = \dfrac{12000}{16000} \times 100 = 75\% \text{ less}$
42. Out of the total private employees in P, 45% are banking employees and the rest are non-banking employees. Out of the total government employees in city Q, the number of banking employees is 25% of the private banking employees in P, and the rest are non-banking employees. Find the difference between the number of private non-banking employees in P and the number of government non-banking employees in Q.
(a) 1100
(b) 3300
(c) 2200
(d) 4400
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) 3300
Solution:
Pvt. non-banking employees in P = $8000 \times \dfrac{55}{100} = 4400$
Govt. non-banking employees in Q:
Given 25% are banking → 75% non-banking
$$ = 2000 \times \dfrac{75}{100} \times \dfrac{45}{100} = 2000 \times 0.75 \times 0.45 = 675$$
(But in solution: they compute $= 2000 – 900 = 1100$)
Hence, required difference = $4400 – 1100 = \boxed{3300}$
43. If out of the total government employees in S, 33.33% are female and the rest are male. Out of the total male government employees in city S, 40% are living on rent and the rest are living in their own houses. Find the ratio of the number of male government employees in city S who are living in their own houses to the number of private employees in city P.
(a) 7:5
(b) 5:7
(c) 3:5
(d) 5:3
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) 3:5
Solution:
Total govt. employees in City S = 12000
Female employees = $33.33\%$ of $12000 = \dfrac{1}{3} \times 12000 = 4000$
Male employees = $12000 – 4000 = 8000$
Male govt. employees living on rent = $40\%$ of $8000 = 3200$
Male govt. employees living in own houses = $8000 – 3200 = 4800$
Private employees in City P = 8000
Required ratio = $\dfrac{4800}{8000} = \dfrac{3}{5}$
Directions (44-48): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow:
There are three sports clubs P, Q, and R. The number of athletes in club Q in 2012 and 2020 is 4b4b4b and CCC respectively. The ratio of the number of athletes in club Q in 2012 and 2016 is 4:5 respectively.
The number of athletes in club P in 2016 is 6 more than that in Q in 2016. The number of athletes in club R in 2012 is 2C2C2C and in 2016 is 42 more than that in 2012. The ratio of the number of athletes in club R in 2016 and 2020 is 16:15 respectively.
The total number of athletes in club Q in all the three years together is 300, and that in R is 522. The total number of athletes in club P in 2012 is 16 more than the number of athletes in club R in the same year.
44. Find the difference between the number of athletes in club P in 2016 and the number of athletes in club R in 2012 and 2020 together.
(a) 202
(b) 199
(c) 194
(d) 207
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) 199
45. If 37.5% of the athletes in club R in 2016 have been selected for national levels and of the national-level athletes selected from club R in 2016, $frac{1}{4}$ got rejected before the final round, then the number of athletes who got selected for the national-level final round in 2016 is what percent of the number of athletes in club Q in 2012?
(a) 49%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 54%
(e) 52%
Answer: (d) 54%
Solution:
Selected athletes in 2016 in club R:
$= 192 \times \dfrac{37.5}{100} \times \dfrac{3}{4} = 54$
Athletes in club Q in 2012 = 100
Required % = $\dfrac{54}{100} \times 100 = \boxed{54\%}$
46. Find the average of the number of athletes in club P in 2012, club Q in 2020, and club R in 2016.
(a) 144.33
(b) 142.67
(c) 143
(d) 141.27
(e) None of these
Answer: (a) 144.33
Solution:
Required average = $\dfrac{166 + 75 + 192}{3}$
= $\dfrac{433}{3}$
= $\boxed{144.33}$
47. Out of the total number of athletes in 2020 in club R, 45% have opted for coaches. Then find the sum of the number of athletes in club R in 2020 who did not opt for coaches and the number of athletes in 2016 in club Q.
(a) 216
(b) 219
(c) 224
(d) 208
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) 224
Solution:
Athletes in club R in 2020 who did not opt for coaches = $180 \times \dfrac{55}{100} = 99$
Athletes in club Q in 2016 = 125
Required sum = $99 + 125 = \boxed{224}$
48. If the number of athletes in 2020 in club S is the same as the difference between the number of athletes in club P in 2016 and club Q in 2020, then find the difference between the number of athletes in club R in 2012 and the number of athletes in club S in 2020.
(a) 92
(b) 94
(c) 90
(d) 88
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) 94
Solution:
Athletes in 2020 in club S = $131 – 75 = 56$
Athletes in club R in 2012 = 150
Required difference = $150 – 56 = \boxed{94}$
49. A man goes from P to Q and covers 13frac{1}{3}31 of the distance by car and 120 km of the distance by train of speed 30 km/hr, and the remaining distance by bus. The total time taken is 15 hours, and the ratio of the speed of the car to the bus is 5:4. Find the time taken by the man to cover the distance between P and Q using the car, if the distance between P and Q is 600 km.
(a) 8 hrs
(b) 16 hrs
(c) 10 hrs
(d) 12 hrs
(e) None of these
Answer: (d) 12 hrs
Solution:
Distance by car = $600 \times \dfrac{1}{3} = 200$ km
Equation:
$\dfrac{200}{5x} + \dfrac{280}{4x} = 15 – 4$
$\Rightarrow \dfrac{40 + 70}{x} = 11 \Rightarrow \dfrac{110}{x} = 11 \Rightarrow x = 10$
Speed of car = $5x = 50$ km/h Time taken = $\dfrac{600}{50} = \boxed{12\ \text{hrs}}$
50. A dishonest seller sells his goods at a loss of 10% but uses 750 grams of weight instead of 1 kg weight and obtains a profit of a%. Find the profit percentage obtained by the seller if he sells his goods at a profit of a% and uses 750 grams of weight of 1 kg weight.
(a) 65%
(b) 60%
(c) 45%
(d) 50%
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) 60%
Solution:
Let the cost price (CP) of 1 kg goods = ₹100
He sells at a loss of 10%, so selling price (SP) of 1 kg = ₹90
But he gives only 750 g instead of 1000 g.
So, actual quantity sold = 0.75 kg
Hence, effective selling price per kg = $\dfrac{90}{0.75} = ₹120$
Now, profit percentage: $\text{Profit} = \dfrac{120 – 100}{100} \times 100 = 20%$
So, if 10% loss yields 20% profit using 750g,
Then selling at profit of 20% with 750g will yield:
New SP = ₹120 (from above),
Now he sells at profit of 20%, so CP = $\dfrac{120}{1.20} = ₹100$
But he gives only 750g, so effective price per kg: $ \dfrac{120}{0.75} = ₹160$ Effective profit = $\dfrac{160 – 100}{100} \times 100 = \boxed{60%}$
REASONING & COMPUTER APTITUDE
Directions (51-55):
Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.
13 houses are situated in a linear row from west to east, numbered 1 to 13, all facing north. Out of these 13 houses, 9 houses are occupied by 9 persons, and the remaining 4 are vacant. E lives in the 7th house.
One person lives between C and A, where A does not live at the extreme ends. Three houses are there between C and E. Immediate neighboring houses of C are not vacant. I and F are immediate neighbors. D lives second to the right of A. Four houses are there between D and H. H lives to the right of G and to the left of B. The number of houses to the right of F is one less than the number of houses to the left of C. G does not live at extreme ends.
51. How many persons live between the one who lives second from the right end and A?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five
Answer: (b) Two
52. Who among the following lives between E and A?
(a) D
(b) H
(c) B
(d) I
(e) None
Answer: (e) None
Solution: No one lives between E and A
53. Find the odd one out.
(a) GI
(b) DC
(c) HE
(d) FH
(e) EA
Answer: (c) HE
Solution: There is a vacant house between H and E’s house.
54. What is the position of D’s house with respect to H’s house?
(a) 4th Right
(b) 5th Left
(c) 3rd Left
(d) 5th Right
(e) None of these
Answer: (d) 5th Right
Solution:
D’s house is 5th to the right of H’s house.
H is at position 4 → D is at position 9 → $9 – 4 = 5$
55. How many persons are living to the left of B?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Answer: (e) None
Solution:
No one is living to the left of B.
To the left of B: C and D are there → False
Directions (56-60): A number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement:
Input: 346789 846063 286112 541206 623714 107825
Step 1: 346781 84609 28614 541236 623716 107825
Step 2: 76781 12609 10614 91236 83716 17825
Step 3: 67781 12690 01641 19263 38761 17852
Step 4: 1782 1690 1642 8266 5762 6854
Step 5: 64 100 49 81 49 36 100 144 14464 196 81
Find the different steps of output using the above-mentioned logic for the following input:
Input: 55858 82944 19816 29475 73847 68096
56. Which of the following numbers is 5th from the right end in Step 4?
(a) 1854
(b) 1898
(c) 1868
(d) 1866
(e) 1962
Answer: (b) 1898
57. How many odd numbers are there in Step 3?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five
Answer: (c) Three
Solution:
58. What is the sum of numbers 3rd from the left end and 2nd from the right end in Step 5?
(a) 244
(b) 109
(c) 485
(d) 205
(e) 350
Answer: (b) 109
59. What is the difference between the numbers 4th from the left end and 5th from the right end in Step 2?
(a) 492
(b) 525
(c) 616
(d) 509
(e) None of these
Answer: (d) 509
60. Which of the following numbers is 7th from the left end in Step 5?
(a) 16
(b) 64
(c) 81
(d) 144
(e) 289
Answer: (a) 16
Directions (61-64): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
Conditions:
- All the consonants except M, N, P are coded as 1–9 in the same order. M, N, P are coded as @, &, * respectively.
- If the 1st letter of a word is a vowel and the last letter is M/N/P, then that vowel is coded as the code of the last letter.
- If a word has an odd number of letters, then the 1st vowel (if present) is coded as ‘#’ and if a word has an even number of letters and ≥2 consonants are there after the first vowel, then that vowel is coded as ‘$’.
- If the last letter is a vowel, then that vowel is coded as “%”.
- If there are more than two repeated vowels, then the consonant adjacent to them is coded as the code of the next letter of the consonant according to the alphabetical order.
- If there are more than three consonants which are immediately followed by vowels, then those vowels are coded as “+”.
- If none of the above conditions are satisfied for a vowel, then that vowel is coded as “^”.
61. What will be the codes of the words “Palm” and “Outside” respectively?
(a) 1 > 9#, #^43^3%
(b) *$$$9@, #^43^3%
(c) 1#9@, @$$$3%3#
(d) *$$$9@, @%3 > 3 >
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) *$\$$9@, #^43^3%
62. If the word “DE___E” is a meaningful word, then what is its code?
(a) 3 ^ 2 ^ 3 ^
(b) 3 + 2 ^ 3 ^
(c) 3 + 2 + 3 +
(d) 3 @ 2 @ 3 +
(e) None of these
Answer: (d) 3 @ 2 @ 3 +
63. Which of the following words are coded as “98^23, *^^3” respectively?
(a) LOCKS, PAIN
(b) ZBERA, PACK
(c) LYARD, PAID
(d) ZKING, PARK
(e) LWEIS, PALM
Answer: (c) LYARD, PAID
64. What will be the code of “FACEBOOK”?
(a) $4 $ 2 wedge perp wedgewedge 8$
(b) $4 wedge 2 $ perp wedgewedge 8$
(c) $4 + 2 + perp wedgewedge 8$
(d) $ 4 $ 2 wedge 1 perp ++ 8$
(e) None of these
Answer: (a) $4 \$ 2 \wedge \perp \wedge\wedge 8$
Directions (65-67): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:
Twelve persons were born in two different years, 1998 and 1999. The number of persons born in 1998 is more than the number of persons born in 1999.
F was born in 1999 in a month having an even number of days. The gap between the month of F and H is 3. K was born in the same month as H. There is a five-month gap between H and L. B was born in November. B and X were born in different years. One person was born between the one who was born in July and X. One person was born between B and M. P was born just after B. S was born in a month of 30 days and before K. There is a gap of four months between M and U. The gap of months between B and D is the same as the number of persons born before T. T was born before X.
65. When was D born?
(a) July 1998
(b) May 1998
(c) August 1998
(d) April 1999
(e) August 1999
Answer: (c) August 1998
66. Who among the following was born in October 1999?
(a) X
(b) H
(c) F
(d) T
(e) L
Answer: (b) H
67. How many persons were born between K and S?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2
(e) None
Answer: (d) 2
Directions (68–70): In each of the following questions, two statements have been given. Analyze the given statements and answer whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not.
(a) If data in the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If data in the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If data given in both I & II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If data in both statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.
68. In a family of 6 members, how is G related to H?
Statement I:
G is the only son of B. D is the father of B. C is the aunt of G. D has only 1 daughter. C’s sister is the parent of G. H is unmarried.
Statement II:
G is the child of E. D is the grandfather of G. B is the father of G. H is the sister of B. C is the daughter of D and the sister of E.
Answer: (a) If data in the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
69. Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V went to a mall on different days of the same week, starting from Monday till Sunday. Who went immediately before the one who went on Wednesday?
Statement I:
S went immediately before R. P went one of the days after Friday. 4 friends went between P and T. R did not go on Thursday. V did not go on Wednesday. 2 friends went between Q and U.
Statement II:
V went before U. Q went 3 friends after V. S went 2 friends before P. 1 friend went between T and S. T went before S.
Answer: (d) If data given in both I & II are not sufficient to answer the question.
70. Six students A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table facing inside. Who sits immediately to the left of F?
Statement I:
Two persons sit between A and B. C sits 2nd to the right of B.
Statement II:
As many sit between E and D as between D and B. D sits 2nd to the left of F.
Answer:
Directions (71–74): In every question, two rows are given, and to find out the resultant of a particular row, you need to follow the following conditions:
Conditions:
- If an odd number is followed by a perfect square number, then the resultant will be the positive difference between the two.
- If an even number is followed by an even number, then the resultant will be the addition of the positive difference between the two numbers with the higher number.
- If an odd number is followed by an odd prime number, then the resultant will be the positive difference between the two.
- If an odd number is followed by an odd non-prime number, then the resultant will be the average of the two numbers.
- If an odd number is followed by an even number which is not a perfect square number, then the resultant will be twice the positive difference of the two numbers.
- If an even number is followed by an odd number, then the resultant will be the addition of the two numbers.
71. If “X” is the resultant of Row 2, then what is the sum of the resultants of both the rows?
R1: 19 35 X
R2: 30 18 17
(a) 87
(b) 85
(c) 91
(d) 93
(e) 83
Answer: (c) 91
Solution:
R2: $(30 – 18) + 30, 17 \Rightarrow 12 + 30 = 42$, then $42 + 17 = \boxed{59}$
R1: $19, 35, 59 \Rightarrow \dfrac{19 + 35}{2} = \boxed{27}$
Sum = $59 + 27 = \boxed{91}$
72. What is the subtraction of the resultant of row 2 from the sum of resultants of row 1 and row 3?
R1: 23 16 10
R2: 33 28 15
R3: 36 21 15
(a) 17
(b) 20
(c) 23
(d) 24
(e) 29
Answer: (a) 17
Solution:
R1: $(23 – 16), 10 \Rightarrow 7, 10$
$\Rightarrow 2 \times (10 – 7) = \boxed{6}$
R2: $(33 – 28), 15 \Rightarrow 5, 15 \Rightarrow 10 + 15 = \boxed{25}$
R3: $36 + 21 = 57$, then $R3 \Rightarrow \dfrac{57 + 15}{2} = \boxed{36}$ Required subtraction = $36 + 6 – 25 = \boxed{17}$
73. If “X” is the resultant of Row 2 and “Y” is the resultant of Row 3, then what is the resultant of row 1?
R1: 27 X Y
R2: 23 16 12
R3: 42 8 50
(a) 136
(b) 142
(c) 155
(d) 170
(e) 160
Answer: (d) 170
Solution:
R2: $(23 – 16), 12 \Rightarrow 7, 12$
$2 \times (12 – 7) = \boxed{10} = X$
R3: $42 + (42 – 8) = 42 + 34 = 76$
Then: $R3 = 76, 50 \Rightarrow 76 + (76 – 50) = \boxed{102} = Y$
R1: $27, X = 10, Y = 102 \Rightarrow 27 + 10 + 102 = \boxed{139}$ However, from the image the value appears: $\boxed{d) 170}$
74. What is the resultant of the new row made by arranging the resultants of the 3 rows in ascending order from left to right?
R1: 14 12 29
R2: 33 26 20
R3: 15 28 16
(a) 24
(b) 10
(c) 35
(d) 48
(e) 60
Answer: (b) 10
Solution:
Given rows:
R1: 14, 12, 29
R2: 33, 26, 20
R3: 38, 15, 16
R1: $14 + (14 – 12), 29 \Rightarrow 16, 29 \Rightarrow (16 + 29) = 45$
R2: $2 \times (33 – 26), 20 \Rightarrow 14, 20 \Rightarrow (20 + (20 – 14)) = 26$ R3: $2 \times (38 – 15), 16 \Rightarrow 46, 16 \Rightarrow (46 + (46 – 16)) = 76$
Now, arrange resultants in ascending order: $26, 45, 76$
Let $R_n = 26, 45, 76$
$R_n \Rightarrow (26 + 45), 76 = 71, 76$ $\Rightarrow 2 \times (76 – 71) = \boxed{10}$
75. P is 9m to the north of Q. R is 4m to the north of S. T is 8m to the west of S. R is 6m to the east of Q. W is to the east of P north of S. T is 7m to the south of U. V is 4m to the east of U.
(a) TV
(b) QW
(c) UP
(d) TQ
(e) PR
Answer: (e) PR
Directions (76–78): In the following questions, the symbols $$$, @, #, *, and & are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
- P $$$ Q means P is neither less nor equal to Q.
- P @ Q means P is neither greater nor equal to Q.
- P # Q means P is neither less nor greater than Q.
- P * R means P is not greater than Q.
- P & Q means P is not less than Q.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II, and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
76.
Statement: U @ O $$$ N * I @ E; N # M @ A; O & W $ D
Conclusions:
(I) O & A
(II) I $$$ D
(III) W @ E
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Both conclusions I and II follow
(c) All the conclusions follow
(d) Either conclusion I or II follows
(e) None of the conclusions follows
Answer: (e) None of the conclusions follows
Solution:
Statements: $U < O > N \leq I < E;\quad N = M < A;\quad O \geq W > D$
Conclusions:
(I) $O \geq A$ → Not definite ✖
(II) $I > D$ → No direct link ✖ (III) $W < E$ → True ✔
77.
Statement: N $$$ M # Z # D @ W * P; T $ O $ Z * H
Conclusions:
(I) W @ H
(II) T $$$ D
(III) P & N
(a) Only conclusion II follows
(b) Both conclusions II and III follow
(c) All the conclusions follow
(d) Either conclusion II or III follows
(e) None of the conclusions follow
Answer: (a) Only conclusion II follows
Solution:
Statements: $N > M = Z = D < W \leq P;\quad T > O > Z \leq H$
Conclusions:
(I) $W < H$ → Not definite ✖
(II) $T > D$ → True ✔
(III) $P \geq N$ → Not definite ✖
78.
Statements: Z @ Y * A @ O; Y & A # U $$$ X
Conclusions:
(I) O $$$ X
(II) U $$$ Z
(III) A & S
(a) Only conclusion III follows
(b) Both conclusions I and III follow
(c) Only conclusion I follows
(d) Either conclusion I or III follows
(e) None of the conclusions follow
Answer: (b) Both conclusions I and III follow
Solution:
Statements: $Z < Y \leq A < O;\quad Y \geq A = U > X$
Conclusions:
(I) $O > X$ → True
(II) $U > Z$ → True
(III) $A \geq S$ → No info
Directions (79–81): In the questions below, there are four statements followed by three conclusions I, II, and III. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
79. Statement:
All A are B.
Only a few B are C.
All C are D.
No D is E.
Conclusions:
(I) All B being E is a possibility
(II) Some A is C
(III) Some B is not E
(a) Only conclusion III follows
(b) Both conclusions I and III follow
(c) All the conclusions follow
(d) Either con (a) Only conclusion III followsclusion II or III follows
(e) None of the conclusions follow
Answer: (a) Only conclusion III follows
80. Statement:
- No P is Q.
- All R is Q.
- Only a few R are S.
- All S are T.
Conclusions:
(I) Some Q is not S.
(II) All Q being S is a possibility.
(III) Some T are not P.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Both conclusions I and III follow
(c) Only conclusion III follows
(d) Either conclusion I or II follows
(e) None of the conclusions follow
Answer: (b) Both conclusions I and III follow
81. Statements:
- All J are K.
- Only a few L are L.
- All L are M.
- No M is N.
Conclusions:
(I) Some L are N.
(II) Some K are not N.
(III) All N being N is a possibility.
(a) Only conclusion II follows
(b) Both conclusions II and III follow
(c) All the conclusions II follow
(d) Only conclusion on III follows
(e) None of the conclusions follow
Answer: (b) Both conclusions II and III follow
82. To manage the heavy workload, the workers of company A are demanding to increase the number of workers. If the demand is not fulfilled by the company, the workers are threatening the company to go on strike.
Which one of the following will strengthen or weaken the above statement?
I: From the last few years, due to heavy workload, the workers are working extra hours and did not go on leave.
II: From the last six months, the workers of company A take rest in between work, thus the work is not being completed.
(a) I is the work and II is strong
(b) Both are strong
(c) Both are weak
(d) I is strong and II is weak
(e) Either I or II is weak
Answer: (d) I is strong and II is weak
Directions (83–84): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both follow
(e) None follows
83. Statement: The restaurant nearest to the station is experiencing heavy rush in peak hours. So the restaurant owner decided to close the cafe during the peak hour and appoint more workers.
Conclusions:
(I) During the peak hours, some customers will go to other restaurants.
(II) By appointing new workers, the work can be managed smoothly and the new workers will take the place of the old workers.
Answer: (a) Only I follows
84. Statement: After country D has introduced the AI learning course, there is a notable 25% decrease in the number of students who are moving to country K.
Conclusions:
(I) Country K has offered an AI learning course.
(II) The introduction of AI learning courses in country D assured jobs of good salaries to students.
Answer: (e) None follows
Directions (85-86): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer:
(a) If only assumption I is implicit
(b) If only assumption II is implicit
(c) If either I or II is implicit
(d) If both I and II are implicit
85. Statement: Recruitment board has ordered to release vacancies for 2000 vacant posts. But the board has also mentioned that the examination will be conducted if only the applications received is 40 times the number of posts.
Assumptions:
I. There has not been recruitment at the vacant posts by the board for the last 4 years.
II. The arrangement of the examination is a long and costly process.
Answer: (b) If only assumption II is implicit
86. Statement: Organization A has launched a new website through which people can know about the benefits of their products. The website received positive feedback from the media also. But at present, only 20% of the public are using the website. So the HR department has decided to make changes to the website.
Assumptions:
I. The website is being used only by the age group of 30 or more.
II. The website was not built in the observation of the HR department.
Answer: (d) If both I and II are implicit
Directions (87-88):
In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and, on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing. Give answer:
(a) If only I follows
(b) If only II follows
(c) If either I or II follows
(d) If neither I nor II follows
(e) If both I and II follow
87. There is an increase in the number of waterborne diseases in area D of country L because the people of area D are using tap water without any filtration.
Course of Action:
I. The supply of water in area D should be reduced.
II. To save people from waterborne diseases, a public awareness program should be arranged so that people can be aware of the importance of using clean water.
Answer: (b) If only II follows
88. Statement: Exporters in the capital are alleging that commercial banks are violating a Reserve Bank of India directive to operate a post-shipment export credit denominated in foreign currency at international rates from April this year.
Course of Action:
I. The officers concerned in the commercial banks are to be suspended.
II. The RBI should be asked to stop giving such directives to commercial banks.
Answer: (d) If neither I nor II follows
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 89 – 93):
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are three stacks i.e., A, B, and C from west to east, which contain different numbers of boxes placed one above the other.
Height of each of the boxes is the same. W is in the north-west of E. E is two boxes below P in the same stack. Four boxes are placed between H and the box which is in the west of W in the same stack. K is in the east of H. Two boxes are below E in the same stack. There is no box towards the east of E. Three boxes are placed between K and P in the same stack. Five boxes are placed between O, which is at the top, and N in the same stack, which is not in the east of S. M, which is placed below P’s stack, is in the east of N’s stack. Box O is to the east of box H. S is placed at the bottom and in the stack which is at the extreme west. The number of boxes above E in the same stack is two less than the number of boxes placed below H in the same stack. Two boxes are placed between W and T in the same stack, which is third from the top.
89. Which among the following is not true with respect to box T?
(a) Box T is kept immediately south of box P.
(b) Box T is kept north-east of box S.
(c) Box T is kept above box N.
(d) Only one box is kept between box T and box O when both are in the same stack.
(e) All are true.
Answer: (a) Box T is kept immediately south of box P.
Solution: Box T is placed in stack B and P is also in stack B but three rows below T. Hence, T is not immediately north-west of P. Option (a) is not true.
90. Which among the following pairs of boxes are kept in the bottommost position?
(a) SE
(b) NE
(c) SN
(d) KS
(e) None of these
Answer: (e) None of these
Solution:
The bottommost boxes in each stack are:
Stack A: S, Stack B: E, Stack C: Empty. None of the options exactly match any valid pair.
91. Which among the following box is box numbered 4 of stack B?
(a) W
(b) N
(c) M
(d) O
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) N
Solution: From the arrangement, box N is at position number 4 in stack B.
92. How many boxes are kept above box?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) 7
Solution: Box E is placed at position 3 in stack B, so 7 boxes are above it.
93. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form a group. Which one of that does not belong to that group?
(a) WN
(b) ME
(c) HS
(d) KT
(e) OT
Answer: (d) KT
Solution:
In pair OT, K is north-east of T, while in all other options, the first box is to the north of the second box, hence OT is the odd one.
94. Statement: Police have rescued 240 human trafficking victims, mainly children from forced labor and prostitution in a major operation in Burundi and Tanzania.
(I) Mostly children fall into the hands of traffickers in their own countries and abroad.
(II) Mainly Burundi and Tanzania witnessed the problem of human trafficking.
(III) Almost every country in the world is affected by trafficking, whether as a country of origin, transit, or destination for victims.
Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement?
(a) Only I and II are implicit
(b) Only III is implicit
(c) Only III and II are implicit
(d) All are implicit
(e) None is implicit
Answer: (e) None is implicit
Solution:
I. Children are vulnerable to human trafficking — clearly implied.
III. Human trafficking is a global issue — also mentioned. II is not directly implied.
95. Kumkum is 23m to the west of Ritika. Ritika is 25m to the north of Vinita. Vinita is 20m to the east of Lavnya. Laxmi is 21m to the north of Lavnya. If Kumkum has to meet Laxmi through the shortest distance and then has to meet Vinita from Laxmi’s point through the shortest distance, then what is the total distance travelled by Kumkum?
(a) 30m
(b) 25m
(c) 34m
(d) 38m
(e) Cannot be determined
Answer: (c) 34m
DIRECTIONS (96 – 100): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:
Eight players – E, G, I, K, N, P, T, and W are sitting in a row facing north. Each player wears different jersey numbers viz. – 10, 11, 15, 16, 18, 19, 23, and 28. All the information is not necessary in the same order.
P sits fourth to the left of the one who wears 28 number jersey, none of them sits at the end. K sits third to the left of W, who wears 11 number jersey. The number of players sitting to the left of K is one less than the number of players sitting to the right of G, who wears a prime number jersey wore by G. T’s jersey number is 5 more than I’s jersey number, who sits third to the right of the one who wears 18 number jersey. I and W sit together. E doesn’t wear an even number jersey and sits third to the left of N. N doesn’t wear a prime number jersey.
96. What is the position of N with respect to the one who wears 23 number jersey?
(a) Third to the right
(b) Immediate left
(c) Second to the right
(d) Fourth to the left
(e) None of these
Answer: (a) Third to the right
Solution: N is 3rd to the right of the one who wears 23 (G at pos 3, N at pos 8)
97. Four of the five are related to each other in a certain way and thus form a group, find the odd one out?
(a) P – 11
(b) E – 10
(c) W – 18
(d) K – 23
(e) I – 19
Answer: (c) W – 18
Solution: Only W – 18 is not matching the pattern (others are odd numbers, prime/near to 10)
98. How many players are sitting between N and the one who wears 11 number jersey?
(a) As many players sitting to the right of G
(b) Three
(c) As many players are sitting between P and the one who wears 10
(d) Four
(e) Either (a) or (c)
Answer: (a) As many players sitting to the right of G
Solution: N (pos 8), W (pos 7) → 0 in between; G (pos 3) has 5 right of him
99. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. P sits third to the left of the one who wears 11.
II. T sits second to the right of the one who wears 28.
III. E wears jersey number 5 more than P’s jersey number.
(a) Only III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only II and III
(d) Only II
(e) None of the statements is true.
Answer: (c) Only II and III
Solution: P is 5 left of 11 (not 3) – False; II: T is 2nd right of 28 – True; III: E(10), P(15) → not +5 – False
100. Which of the following persons are sitting between K and the one who wears 23 number jersey?
I. The one who wears 19 jersey number
II. P
III. The one who sits second to the right of the one who wears 10 number jersey.
(a) Only III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only II and III
(d) Only II
(e) None of these
Answer: (d) Only II
Solution: Between K(pos 4) and 23(pos 3): only P(pos 2)
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
DIRECTIONS (101-105): Read the following passage and answer the questions given below. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions.
In recent years, e-commerce has witnessed a remarkable surge in popularity in rural India. This phenomenon, driven by several factors, presents both opportunities and challenges for the future of the Indian economy.
One key driver of e-commerce growth in rural areas is the increasing penetration of internet connectivity. With the expansion of mobile networks and affordable data plans, more and more rural residents are gaining access to the online world. This opens up a vast new market for online retailers, who can now offer their products to a previously untapped customer base.
Furthermore, the rise of e-commerce platforms in local languages has further facilitated online shopping in rural India. By removing the language barrier, these platforms make it easier for rural customers to browse products, understand descriptions, and navigate the shopping process. Additionally, the convenience of online shopping, with its easy access to a wider variety of products and competitive prices, is particularly appealing to rural residents who may have limited access to physical stores with diverse offerings.
However, the growth of e-commerce in rural India is not without its challenges. One major concern is the lack of adequate logistics infrastructure in many rural areas. Delivering products to remote locations can be expensive and time-consuming, which can impact the overall cost and efficiency of online transactions. Additionally, concerns exist regarding the digital literacy of rural populations, as some individuals may require assistance navigating online platforms and completing transactions securely.
Despite these challenges, the potential benefits of e-commerce for rural India are undeniable. By providing access to a wider variety of products at competitive prices, e-commerce can empower rural consumers and enhance their economic opportunities. Additionally, the growth of the e-commerce sector can create new job opportunities in rural areas, especially in areas such as logistics and customer service.
101. What is the main idea of the passage?
(a) E-commerce is facing a decline in popularity in rural India.
(b) The rise of e-commerce in rural India presents both opportunities and challenges.
(c) E-commerce is only beneficial for urban areas.
(d) Rural India has limited access to the internet.
(e) None of the above.
Answer: (b) The rise of e-commerce in rural India presents both opportunities and challenges.
Solution: The rise of e-commerce in rural India presents both opportunities and challenges.
102. What is a key driver of e-commerce growth in rural areas, according to the passage?
(a) The decline of physical stores in rural areas.
(b) The increasing popularity of social media.
(c) The rising cost of living in rural areas.
(d) The increasing penetration of internet connectivity.
(e) All of the above.
Answer: (d) The increasing penetration of internet connectivity.
Solution: The increasing penetration of internet connectivity.
103. What challenge does the passage mention regarding e-commerce in rural India?
(a) The high cost of internet data plans.
(b) The limited variety of products available online.
(c) The lack of adequate logistics infrastructure.
(d) The absence of online payment options.
(e) All of the above.
Answer: (c) The lack of adequate logistics infrastructure.
Solution: The lack of adequate logistics infrastructure.
104. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
(a) E-commerce platforms in local languages make online shopping easier for rural customers.
(b) E-commerce can create new job opportunities in rural areas.
(c) Rural residents face limited access to diverse product offerings in physical stores.
(d) The rise of e-commerce eliminates the need for physical stores altogether.
(e) None of the above.
Answer: (d) The rise of e-commerce eliminates the need for physical stores altogether.
Solution: The rise of e-commerce eliminates the need for physical stores altogether.
105. What is the tone of the passage?
(a) Strongly negative towards e-commerce in rural areas.
(b) Enthusiastic about the potential of e-commerce in rural areas.
(c) Neutral and objective in its presentation of the topic.
(d) Primarily focused on the challenges faced by e-commerce in rural areas.
(e) None of the above.
Answer: (c) Neutral and objective in its presentation of the topic.
Solution: Neutral and objective in its presentation of the topic.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 106-110): Read the following passage and answer the questions given below. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions.
The rapid advancement of automation technologies is transforming the global workforce, raising concerns about job displacement while also presenting potential opportunities for increased productivity and economic growth. This passage explores the complex implications of automation for the future of work.
One of the most significant concerns surrounding automation is the potential for widespread job losses. As machines become increasingly capable of performing tasks previously done by humans, certain jobs may become obsolete or require significantly fewer workers. This could lead to increased unemployment and economic hardship, particularly for individuals employed in sectors heavily reliant on manual labor or repetitive tasks.
However, the impact of automation is not solely negative. Automation can also lead to increased efficiency and productivity, allowing businesses to produce goods and services at a lower cost and with greater speed. This can stimulate economic growth and create new job opportunities in areas such as design, engineering, and maintenance of automated systems.
Additionally, automation can free up human workers from tedious and monotonous tasks, allowing them to focus on more creative, strategic, and interpersonal aspects of work.
The future of work in the age of automation will likely require a multifaceted approach. Individuals and educational institutions will need to adapt by developing the skills and knowledge necessary to thrive in an automated economy. This may involve acquiring expertise in areas such as data analysis, critical thinking, and problem-solving, along with strong communication and collaboration skills.
106. What is the central theme of the passage?
(a) Automation will eliminate all manual labor jobs in the future.
(b) The future of work will remain unchanged despite automation.
(c) Automation presents both challenges and opportunities for the future of work.
(d) Educational institutions are not prepared for the impact of automation.
(e) All of the above
Answer: (c) Automation presents both challenges and opportunities for the future of work.
Solution: Automation presents both challenges and opportunities for the future of work.
107. According to the passage, what is a potential consequence of automation?
(a) Increased job creation in the technology sector.
(b) Reduced need for human workers in specific sectors.
(c) Elimination of the need for repetitive tasks altogether.
(d) All of the above.
(e) None of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above.
Solution: All of the above.
108. What positive outcome of automation is mentioned in the passage?
(a) Lower production costs for businesses.
(b) Creation of new jobs requiring different skillsets.
(c) Increased leisure time for workers.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
(e) Both (a) and (c).
Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b).
Solution: Both (a) and (b).
109. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
(a) Automation requires adaptation in terms of educational programs and individual skill development.
(b) Policymakers need to consider measures to address potential job losses due to automation.
(c) The future of work in the age of automation demands primarily technical skills.
(d) Automation can free up human workers to engage in more creative and strategic tasks.
(e) None of the above
Answer: (c) The future of work in the age of automation demands primarily technical skills.
Solution: The future of work in the age of automation demands primarily technical skills.
110. What is the author’s perspective on automation?
(a) Strongly critical and opposed to the advancement of automation.
(b) Optimistic and sees only positive outcomes from automation.
(c) Cautious and acknowledges both potential benefits and drawbacks.
(d) Neutral and avoids expressing any personal opinions on the topic.
(e) None of the above
Answer: (c) Cautious and acknowledges both potential benefits and drawbacks.
Solution: Cautious and acknowledges both potential benefits and drawbacks.
DIRECTIONS (111-120): In the passages given below, there are blanks, each followed by a word given in bold. Every blank has four alternative words given in options (a), (b), (c), and (d). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. If the word given in bold after the blank is your answer, mark (e), i.e., ‘No change required.’
The idea of the documentary was __111__ (deceive) by Krishna in the year 2007 while he was __112__ (attaining) to his undergraduate course __113__ (off) the Western International University, New Delhi, India as a possible __114__ (enmity) for an annual inter-university competition __115__ (furor) SIFE (Students in Free Enterprise) __116__ (as well as) his institution rejected his __117__ (prosperous) on account of non-feasibility. __118__ (sincere) then he is independently working on this documentary and has __119__ (likewise) interviewed famous personalities from all walks of __120__ (sphere).
111.
(a) accepted
(b) conceived
(c) borrowed
(d) taken
(e) No change required
Answer: (b) conceived
Solution: The correct verb should describe the origin of the idea. means ‘formulated in the mind’, which is suitable here.
112.
(a) attending
(b) arriving
(c) catching
(d) noticing
(e) No change required
Answer: (a) attending
Solution: ‘Attaining’ is incorrect. The correct verb is attending, which means ‘being present at’ a course.
113.
(a) on
(b) in
(c) at
(d) as
(e) No change required
Answer: (c) at
Solution: The correct preposition with ‘University’ in this context is at.
114.
(a) exit
(b) entry
(c) retirement
(d) allocation
(e) No change required
Answer: (b) entry
Solution: The documentary is being submitted as an entry to the competition, so the correct word is entry.
115.
(a) for
(b) from
(c) if
(d) form
(e) No change required
Answer: (a) for
Solution: ‘For’ is the correct preposition to express purpose.
116.
(a) except
(b) only
(c) but
(d) yet
(e) No change required
Answer: (c) but
Solution: ‘As well as’ is inappropriate due to the rejection contrast. But better conveys the contradiction.
117.
(a) angle
(b) proposal
(c) motion
(d) news
(e) No change required
Answer: (b) proposal
Solution: ‘Proposal’ fits the context of submitting an idea for consideration.
118.
(a) since
(b) nearby
(c) convenient
(d) beside
(e) No change required
Answer: (a) since
Solution: ‘Since’ is appropriate for indicating time from a past event.
119.
(a) presently
(b) lastly
(c) old
(d) already
(e) No change required
Answer: (d) already
Solution: ‘Already’ is correct to indicate that something has been done so far.
120.
(a) light
(b) live
(c) alone
(d) life
(e) No change required
Answer: (d) life
Solution: ‘Life’ fits best with the phrase ‘walks of life’, which means various professions or backgrounds.
DIRECTIONS (121-123): Four or more sentences are given below. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option.
121.
A. With that, I swallowed the shampoo, and obtained most realistic results almost on the spot.
B. The man shuffled away into the back regions to make up a prescription, and after a moment I got through on the shop-telephone to the Consulate, intimating my location.
C. Then, while the pharmacist was wrapping up a six-ounce bottle of the mixture, I groaned and inquired whether he could give me something for acute gastric cramp.
D. I intended to stage a sharp gastric attack, and entering an old-fashioned pharmacy, I asked for a popular shampoo mixture, consisting of olive oil and flaked soap.
(a) DCBA
(b) DACB
(c) BDAC
(d) BCDA
Answer: (a) DCBA
Solution: D starts the narration with the person entering the pharmacy and asking for shampoo. C continues with the staged act. B is the next logical action, and A concludes with the result of swallowing the shampoo.
122.
A. Since then, intelligence tests have been mostly used to separate dull children in school from average or bright children, so that special education can be provided to the dull.
B. In other words, intelligence tests give us a norm for each age.
C. Intelligence is expressed as Intelligence Quotient, and tests are developed to indicate what an average child of a certain age can do, what a 5-year-old can answer, but a 4-year-old cannot, for instance.
D. Binet developed the first set of such tests in the early 1900s to find out which children in school needed special attention.
E. Intelligence can be measured by tests.
(a) CDABE
(b) DECAB
(c) EDACB
(d) CBADE
Answer: (c) EDACB
Solution: E is the introductory sentence. D talks about the history. A discusses the application. C explains the concept, and B concludes with how norms are defined.
123.
A. As officials, their vision of a country shouldn’t run too far beyond that of the local people with whom they have to deal.
B. Ambassadors have to choose their words.
C. To say what they feel they have to say, they appear to be denying or ignoring part of what they know.
D. So, with ambassadors as with other expatriates in black Africa, there appears at a first meeting a kind of ambivalence.
E. They do a specialized job and it is necessary for them to live ceremonial lives.
(a) BCEDA
(b) BEDAC
(c) BEADC
(d) BCDEA
Answer: (c) BEADC
Solution: B introduces the subject (Ambassadors). E elaborates on their lives. A continues logically. D shows a contrast, and C concludes with the internal conflict.
DIRECTIONS (124–125):
In the given questions, three blanks are given. From the options provided, each has three words that would fit in the blanks correctly. Choose the appropriate option to complete the sentences.
124. News and social media companies have a moral ______ to ensure that they do not, directly or otherwise, deliberately ______ the facts to their audiences and pass them off for news. If it is a post-truth world we ______, this becomes especially important.
(a) obligation, distort, desire
(b) commitment, tarnish, denounce
(c) responsibility, misrepresent, inhabit
(d) purport, besmirch, stigmatize
(e) implication, enhance, reside
Answer: (c) responsibility, misrepresent, inhabit
Solution: “Responsibility” fits morally; “misrepresent” suits the context of false reporting; “inhabit” works for “world we live in.”
125. Activists in the country have long protested its ______ society that essentially ______ women from travelling, marrying or attending college without permission from a male relative, who is called their ______.
(a) benevolent, forbid, steward
(b) pre-adamite, prevent, custodian
(c) pre-eminent, restrict, protector
(d) venerable, condemns, manciple
(e) patriarchal, prohibits, guardian.
Answer: (e) patriarchal, prohibits, guardian.
Solution: “Patriarchal” describes a male-dominated society, “prohibits” matches legal restriction, and “guardian” suits the role.
DIRECTIONS (126–130):
In each of the questions below, they have been divided into parts which may or may not have an error. Choose the part which has an error. If there is no error, choose (e), i.e., No error.
126.
(a) The state government has / (b) issued licences to farmers / (c) allowing them to sell / (d) its vegetables to hotels. / (e) No error
Answer: (d)
Solution: Error: “its vegetables” should be “their vegetables” (refers to farmers, plural).
127.
(a) Many people decide / (b) not to buy a car / (c) last Diwali because of / (d) the high price of petrol last year / (e) No error
Answer: (a)
Solution: Error: “decide” is in present; it should be “decided” (past tense to match “last Diwali”).
128.
(a) We plan to / (b) sell part of our / (c) business therefore we have / (d) to repay a loan. / (e) No error
Answer: (c)
Solution: Error: “therefore” is incorrect connector here. It should be “so” or separate clauses properly.
129.
(a) The Reserve Bank of India is / (b) the only central bank in / (c) Asia which have / (d) raised interest rates in September. / (e) No error
Answer: (c)
Solution: Error: “have” should be “has” (subject is singular: central bank).
130.
(a) Under this scheme, / (b) insurance companies will reimburse / (c) any expenditure on medicines / (d) if you submitting the original bills. / (e) No error
Answer: (d)
Solution: Error: “submitting” should be “submit” to match modal “if you submit the original bills.”
DIRECTIONS (131–132): In the following questions, a sentence is divided into four parts consisting of a highlighted word in each part. Choose the option reflecting the word which is either misspelt or grammatically incorrect. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose option (e), i.e., “are correct” as your answer choice.
131. The discovery of a new planet in the habitable (A) zone of a distant star system has sparked excitement among astronomers. This potentially life-supporting (B) world is much larger than Earth, with a thick atmosphere (C) composed mostly of methane. Scientists are eager to learn more about its potential (D) for harboring life.
(a) habitable
(b) life-supporting
(c) thick atmosphere
(d) potential
(e) all are correct
Answer: (c) thick atmosphere
Solution:
The error is in part (C): “thick atmosphere” is not grammatically incorrect, but in the given context, “atmosphere” should not be highlighted as a potential error. However, if there’s any mismatch in spelling or technicality expected, this might be marked as a distractor. Based on the options and context, none appear wrong, but option (c) is selected based on paper answer.
132. While exploring (A) the Amazon rainforest, researchers came across a previously undocumented (B) species of spider. The vibrantly colored arachnid boasts an intricate web design (C) unlike anything they’ve seen before. Further study is needed to classify it and understand its ecological role (D) within the rainforest.
(a) exploring
(b) undocumented
(c) web design
(d) ecological role
(e) all are correct
Answer: (e) all are correct
Solution: All the highlighted words are correctly spelled and used contextually.
DIRECTIONS (133–137):
In each of the questions given below, a sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
133. The librarian helped the student research / an (A) / topic (B) / interesting (C).
(a) ACB
(b) BCA
(c) BAC
(d) CAB
(e) No change needed
Answer: (a) ACB
Solution:
Correct sentence: “The librarian helped the student research an interesting topic.
The correct order is A (research), C (interesting), B (topic).
134. Delighted (A) / with / the / surprise party / were (B) / her friends (C).
(a) BCA
(b) CBA
(c) ACB
(d) BAC
(e) No change needed
Answer: (b) CBA
Solution:
Correct sentence: Her friends were delighted} with the surprise party.
The correct order is C (her friends), B (were), A (delighted).
135. Concerned (A) / about (B) the rising cost of living / they are (C).
(a) BAC
(b) ACB
(c) BCA
(d) CAB
(e) No change needed
Answer: (d) CAB
Solution:
Correct sentence: They are concerned about} the rising cost of living.
The correct order is C (they are), A (concerned), B (about).
136. Having finished dinner / to play (A) / we decided (B) / a board game (C).
(a) CBA
(b) ACB
(c) BAC
(d) CAB
(e) No change needed
Answer: (c) BAC
Solution:
Correct sentence: “Having finished dinner, we decided to play a board game.
The correct order is B (we decided), A (to play), C (a board game).
137. Despite / the warnings / continued (A) / the hike (B) / they (C).
(a) CAB
(b) ACB
(c) CBA
(d) BCA
(e) No change needed
Answer: (a) CAB
Solution:
Correct sentence: They continued the hike} despite the warnings.
The correct order is C (they), A (continued), B (the hike).
DIRECTIONS (138–140):
In the given statements below, fill in the blanks from the options given.
Citizen science, the ________ (A) of ordinary people in scientific research, has emerged as a powerful tool for gathering data and ________ (B) scientific understanding. This collaborative approach allows researchers to ________ (C) the reach and achieve of their endeavors.
138. Which of the following word(s) would most appropriately fit in blank A?
(a) engagement
(b) involvement
(c) contribution
(d) participation
(e) inclusion
Answer: (d) participation
Solution:
Correct sentence: “Citizen science, the participation of ordinary people in scientific research.
“Participation” fits best for engaging people actively in research.
139. Which of the following word(s) would most appropriately fit in blank B?
(a) advancing
(b) promoting
(c) enhancing
(d) facilitating
(e) accelerating
Answer: (c) enhancing
Solution:
Correct sentence: “…has emerged as a powerful tool for gathering data and enhancing scientific understanding.
“Enhancing” fits well as it suggests improving understanding.
140. Which of the following word(s) would most appropriately fit in blank C?
(a) expand
(b) broaden
(c) widen
(d) extend
(e) amplify
Answer: (d) extend
Solution:
Correct sentence: allows researchers to extend the reach and achieve of their endeavors.
“Extend” fits best with “reach” and “endeavors.”
GENERAL/FINANCIAL AWARENESS
141. With which country, India recently (in Feb ’23) signed an agreement for the launch of the Business council to commemorate the 1st anniversary of the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)?
(a) United Arab Emirates
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Bahrain
(d) Algeria
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a) United Arab Emirates
Solution:
In February 2023, India and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) launched the India-UAE Business Council to mark the first anniversary of the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA), which came into effect on 1 May 2022. This agreement significantly enhanced bilateral trade and economic cooperation between the two countries. The council aims to strengthen investment ties, improve trade relations, and foster innovation between Indian and UAE businesses.
142. Name the app that has been launched by YES Bank in collaboration with customer feedback.
(a) Iris
(b) Ivy
(c) Violet
(d) Luna
(e) Aurora
Answer: (a) Iris
Solution:
YES Bank has launched a new mobile banking application named Iris, which was developed based on comprehensive customer feedback to enhance the user experience. The app integrates advanced features such as biometric authentication, intuitive user interface, seamless navigation, and AI-powered insights. The goal of Iris is to provide customers with a more personalized and secure digital banking experience, aligning with modern banking needs and preferences.
143. In May 2023, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched SAKSHAM to provide—
(a) universal access to mobile connectivity
(b) online training and medical education
(c) the quality of life of the older person
(d) financial services like availability of basic savings bank account
(e) None of the above
Answer: (b) online training and medical education
Solution:
In May 2023, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched SAKSHAM (Stimulating Advanced Knowledge for Sustainable Health Management), a digital learning platform. It was developed to provide online training, capacity building, and continuous medical education} to healthcare professionals across India. The platform aims to strengthen the public health workforce by offering structured, high-quality educational content accessible anytime, anywhere, thereby improving service delivery and healthcare outcomes.
144. President Droupadi Murmu awarded the prestigious President’s Colour to INS Dronacharya for
(a) Submarine school, Sailer Training School
(b) INS Chilka
(c) INS Mandovi
(d) Nuclear Biological and Chemical Defence
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a) Submarine school, Sailer Training School
Solution:
In March 2023, President Droupadi Murmu, the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces, presented the prestigious President’s Colour to INS Dronacharya, the premier gunnery school of the Indian Navy based in Kochi. INS Dronacharya has been instrumental in training naval personnel in gunnery, missile, and seamanship operations. The award recognizes its exceptional service in training sailors and officers, especially in areas such as submarine warfare and sailor training, significantly contributing to the operational readiness of the Indian Navy.
145. Name the unclaimed deposits portal released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
(a) UDGAM portal
(b) RUPIYA
(c) JANM
(d) UDAY
(e) ANTARDRISHTI
Answer: (a) UDGAM portal
Solution:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the UDGAM (Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access Information) portal to help the public search for their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks in one place. This initiative aims to improve transparency and assist individuals in identifying and claiming unclaimed or inactive deposits held in various bank accounts. The portal allows users to log in, search using name and other details, and retrieve information about any such deposits easily.
146. The NW-1 Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river connects between which of the following states?
(a) MP, Rajasthan, UP, Bihar
(b) Punjab, Sikkim, Assam, West Bengal
(c) Bihar, Punjab, MP, UP
(d) UP, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal
(e) None of the above
Answer: (d) UP, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal
Solution:
National Waterway-1 (NW-1), also known as the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly River System}, stretches from {Allahabad (Prayagraj) in Uttar Pradesh} to Haldia in West Bengal}, covering a distance of approximately 1,620 km. It passes through the states of {Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal}. NW-1 is a key inland water transport route for cargo movement and is part of India’s efforts to promote eco-friendly and cost-effective transportation.
147. Which of the following banks was authorised to issue Electoral Bonds?
(a) ICICI Bank
(b) Corporation Bank
(c) State Bank of India
(d) HDFC Bank
(e) Axis Bank
Answer: (c) State Bank of India
Solution: The State Bank of India (SBI) was authorised by the Government of India to issue and encash Electoral Bonds under the Electoral Bond Scheme, 2018. These bonds are a financial instrument for making donations to political parties in a transparent and accountable manner. SBI, being the largest public sector bank, was entrusted with this responsibility due to its wide network and credibility. The bank issues these bonds in specified denominations and at designated branches, while maintaining donor anonymity.
148. Cheque truncation systems are located at?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Lucknow
(c) Delhi
(d) Kolkata
(e) None of the above
Answer: (c) Delhi
Solution: The Cheque Truncation System (CTS) is an image-based cheque clearing system implemented by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to improve the efficiency and speed of cheque clearing. Under CTS, physical cheques are scanned and their electronic images are transmitted for clearing, eliminating the need to move the physical cheques.
The RBI established three major Cheque Truncation System (CTS) grids in India, located in:
1. Delhi (Northern Grid)
2. Mumbai (Western Grid)
3. Chennai (Southern Grid) Among the options given, {Delhi} is correct as it is one of the official CTS grid centres.
149. Where is the Headquarters of the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) located?
(a) Basel, Switzerland
(b) Algeria, Algiers
(c) Zimbabwe, Harare
(d) Comoros, Moroni
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a) Basel, Switzerland
Solution: The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is an international financial institution that serves as a bank for central banks, promoting global monetary and financial stability. It was established in 1930 and is the world’s oldest international financial organization. The headquarters of BIS is located in Basel, Switzerland. The BIS acts as a forum for central banks to collaborate and provides banking services to them. It also conducts research and publishes reports on financial and economic issues of global importance.
149. Where is the Headquarters of the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) located?
(a) Basel, Switzerland
(b) Algeria, Algiers
(c) Zimbabwe, Harare
(d) Comoros, Moroni
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a) Basel, Switzerland
Solution: The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is an international financial institution that serves as a bank for central banks, promoting global monetary and financial stability. It was established in 1930 and is the world’s oldest international financial organization. The headquarters of BIS is located in Basel, Switzerland. The BIS acts as a forum for central banks to collaborate and provides banking services to them. It also conducts research and publishes reports on financial and economic issues of global importance.
150. Star (*) symbol on the number panel of the bank notes are-
(a) Hidden code related to RBI
(b) An identifier that is a replaced/reprinted banknote
(c) Fresh banknotes issued by the RBI
(d) Information about RBI
(e) None of the above
Answer: (b) An identifier that is a replaced/reprinted banknote
Solution: The star (*)on the number panel of Indian banknotes indicates that the note is a replacement or reprinted note} issued by the {Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to replace a defective one detected during the printing process.
This system was introduced by the RBI in 2006 for denominations of ₹10 and above. The use of the star mark helps maintain serial number continuity without reprinting the entire batch. The star appears in the number panel between the prefix and the serial number, but these notes are otherwise identical in all respects and remain legal tender.
151. J. Robert Oppenheimer is the father of the
(a) gasoline bombs
(b) blast bombs
(c) fission bomb
(d) Atom Bomb
(e) None of the above
Answer: (d) Atom Bomb
Solution: J. Robert Oppenheimer, an American theoretical physicist, is widely known as the “father of the atomic bomb” for his role in the Manhattan Project, the World War II undertaking that developed the first nuclear weapons.
152. Where is the Headquarter of Second Schedule of the RBI Act, 1934, NongHyup Bank is located?
(a) Russia
(b) South Korea
(c) Japan
(d) China
(e) None of the above
Answer: (b) South Korea
Solution: NongHyup Bank is headquartered in South Korea and is listed under the Second Schedule of the RBI Act, 1934.
153. What is the currency of the United Arab Emirates?
(a) Euro
(b) United Arab Emirates dirham (AED)
(c) Liberian Dollar
(d) CFA franc
(e) None of the above
Answer: (b) United Arab Emirates dirham (AED)
Solution: AED is the official currency of the United Arab Emirates.
154. The Indian national flag is by law required to be made of:
(a) Silk
(b) Cotton
(c) Muslin
(d) Khadi
(e) None of the above
Answer: (d) Khadi
Solution: The Indian national flag must be made of Khadi as per the Flag Code of India.
155. Which state tops the NITI Aayog’s Export Preparedness Index 2022 for States/UTs?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Varanasi
(c) New Delhi
(d) Tamil Nadu
(e) None of the above
Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu
Solution: Tamil Nadu topped the NITI Aayog’s Export Preparedness Index 2022.
156. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health Organization
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a) World Economic Forum
Solution: The WEF publishes the Global Gender Gap Index annually.
157. The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) has been created under:
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) NABARD
(c) Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
(e) SEBI
Answer: (b) NABARD
Solution: RIDF was created under NABARD for rural infrastructure financing.
158. Spices Board India, under which of the following ministries, and UNDP India’s Accelerator Lab have signed an MoU with the aim to build a blockchain-based traceability interface for Indian spices?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(d) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare
(e) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Answer: (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Solution: Spices Board India functions under ministry of commerce and industry.
159. Choose the correct option regarding the FAME Scheme:
(a) To promote import of electric and hybrid vehicle technology.
(b) FAME stands for Fusion Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicle.
(c) FAME India is not a part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan.
(d) The Fame scheme was announced in 2019 with an outlay of 10,000 crores.
(e) All of the above.
Answer: (d) The Fame scheme was announced in 2019 with an outlay of 10,000 crores.
Solution: FAME-II was launched in 2019 with ₹10,000 crore outlay.
160. Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare launched a new campaign for banks under Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) titled…
(a) BHARAT
(b) SAKSHAM
(c) SAMRIDDHI
(d) GAURAV
Answer: (a) BHARAT
Solution: BHARAT is a campaign under the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund.
161. Mana Village Women use pen and brush for which kind of writing?
(a) Shorthand
(b) ‘Bhojpatra calligraphy’
(c) Penmanship
(d) Script
(e) None of the above
Answer: (b) ‘Bhojpatra calligraphy’
Solution: Women in Mana village practice Bhojpatra calligraphy using pen and brush.
162. Which of the following Indian Premier League (IPL) teams is successful in both franchise brands?
(a) Delhi Daredevils
(b) Chennai Super Kings
(c) Kings XI Punjab
(d) Rajasthan Royals
(e) None of the above
Answer: (b) Chennai Super Kings
Solution: CSK is successful in both IPL and its franchise leagues.
163. Which company has the largest number of white label ATMs in India?
(a) Vakrangee Limited
(b) Indezeon
(c) Hitachi Payment Services Pvt. Ltd.
(d) Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited
(e) None of the above
Answer: (b) Indezeon
Solution: Indezeon has the largest network of white-label ATMs in India.
164. Which of the following Banks does not issue the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate?
(a) Bank of Baroda
(b) Bandhan Bank
(c) Canara Bank
(d) Bank of India
(e) Union Bank of India
Answer: (b) Bandhan Bank
Solution: Bandhan Bank does not issue Mahila Samman Savings Certificate.
165. Triumph motorcycles will manufacture Speed 400 in India in collaboration with which company?
(a) Hero MotoCorp
(b) TVS Motor Company
(c) Bajaj Auto Ltd
(d) India Yamaha Motors
(e) None of the above
Answer: (c) Bajaj Auto Ltd
Solution: Triumph partners with Bajaj Auto to manufacture Speed 400 in India.
166. In 2023, Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan launched the Mobile App ‘ULLAS’ for
(a) Financial literacy
(b) Legal
(c) Vocational
(d) Digital literacy
(e) Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society
Answer: (e) Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society
Solution: ULLAS = Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society.
167. How many digits are there in a Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN)?
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 16
(e) 9
Answer: (a) 12
Solution: PRAN (Permanent Retirement Account Number) contains 12 digits.
168. The risk coverage under Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is for partial disability:
(a) 1 lakh
(b) 2 lakh
(c) 3 lakh
(d) 4 lakh
(e) 5 lakh
Answer: (a) 1 lakh
Solution: PMSBY provides ₹1 lakh for partial disability.
169. Digital India Land Record Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) was launched by the President of India under which Program?
(a) NLRMP
(b) NGDRS
(c) CLR
(d) PPP
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a) NLRMP
Solution: DILRMP was launched under the National Land Records Modernization Programme.
170. Which of the following denominations of coins to commemorate G20?
(a) ₹10 and ₹50
(b) ₹100 and ₹75
(c) ₹1 and ₹5
(d) ₹20 and ₹10
(e) ₹1000 and ₹500
Answer: (b) ₹100 and ₹75
Solution: ₹100 and ₹75 coins commemorate India’s G20 Presidency.
171. THREADS was launched by:
(a) MetaBay.com
(b) Meta
(c) ViralVerse.com
(d) MetaXpert.com
(e) None of the above
Answer: (b) Meta
Solution: Meta launched ‘Threads’ as a text-based alternative to Twitter.
172. Indian Railways plan to become a Net Zero Carbon Emitter by _______.
(a) 2030
(b) 2027
(c) 2032
(d) 2025
(e) 2026
Answer: (a) 2030
Solution: Indian Railways aims to become Net Zero Carbon Emitter by 2030.
173. The Union Cabinet has increased the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane to per quintal for 2023-24.
(a) ₹315
(b) ₹415
(c) ₹215
(d) ₹390
(e) ₹489
Answer: (a) ₹315
Solution: The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane for 2023–24 is ₹315 per quintal.
174. T+3 timeline fixed by which organization?
(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(b) National Securities Clearing Corporation Ltd (NSCCL)
(c) Indian Clearing Corporation Ltd (ICCL)
(d) National Stock Exchange (NSE)
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Solution: SEBI fixed T+3 settlement timeline in securities markets.
175. Rajkot Greenfield airport comes under the scheme:
(a) PM Gati Shakti Project
(b) Bharatmala
(c) Sagarmala
(d) UDAAN
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a) PM Gati Shakti Project
Solution: Rajkot Greenfield Airport is developed under PM Gati Shakti.
176. Number of credit information companies (CIC) operating in India:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
Answer: (d) 4
Solution: There are 4 Credit Information Companies (CICs) in India: CIBIL, Experian, Equifax, and CRIF High Mark.
177. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has committed to enable:
(a) ‘Insurance for Everyone’ – 2047
(b) PM Matsya Sampada Yojana
(c) PM SVANidhi
(d) ‘Rooftop Solar Scheme’
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a) ‘Insurance for Everyone’ – 2047
Solution: IRDAI aims to provide insurance coverage for all by 2047.
178. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched the PSLV-C56/DS-SAR Mission, Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C56) placed all 7 satellites from Singapore into a circular Near Orbit (NEO):
(a) Equatorial
(b) Geostationary orbit (GEO)
(c) Polar orbit and Sun-synchronous orbit (SSO)
(d) Lagrange points (L-points)
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a) Equatorial
Solution: PSLV-C56/DS-SAR Mission placed satellites into Near-Equatorial Orbit (NEO).
179. Which organization has asked banks to display its logo?
(a) City Co-Operative Bank Ltd., Maharashtra.
(b) Hindu Cooperative Bank Limited, Pathankot, Punjab.
(c) Kapol Co-Operative Bank Ltd., Maharashtra.
(d) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation.
(e) None of the above
Answer: (d) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation.
Solution: DICGC asked banks to display its logo at branch entrances.
180. How many tiers in urban cooperative banks?
(a) 3 tiers
(b) 5 tiers
(c) 4 tiers
(d) 7 tiers
(e) 6 tiers
Answer: (c) 4 tiers
Solution:
Urban Cooperative Banks has $ tiers .
Tier 1:
– UCBs operating in a single district,
– With deposits up to ₹100 crore,
– Simple structures, limited operations, and low-risk profile.
Tier 2:
– UCBs operating in more than one district and
– With deposits between ₹100 crore and ₹1,000 crore.
Tier 3:
– UCBs with deposits between ₹1,000 crore and ₹10,000 crore.
– Larger in scale with more diversified operations. Tier 4:
– UCBs with deposits exceeding ₹10,000 crore.
– Comparable in size and complexity to commercial banks.
181. ICAO is a specialised agency of:
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) United Nations Development Group
(c) United Nations
(d) European Union
(e) None of the above
Answer: (c) United Nations
Solution: ICAO is a specialized UN agency for international civil aviation.
182. Total no. of Debts Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRAT’s):
(a) 35
(b) 39
(c) 36
(d) 33
(e) 38
Answer: (b) 39
Solution: There are 39 Debts Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs) in India.
183. Which Union Ministry is associated with the Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill, 2023?
(a) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
(b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Tourism
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Solution: The Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill, 2023 was introduced by this ministry.
184. With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements:
I. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government.
II. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account.
III. They are not allowed to open savings bank accounts and are not members of the clearing houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) Both II and III
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
(e) III only
Answer: (b) Both II and III
Solution: NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits or offer savings accounts and aren’t part of clearing houses. However, they can invest in government securities.
185. As of 2023, banks from how many countries were permitted by the Reserve Bank of India to trade in rupees?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 21
(e) None of the above
Answer: (c) 18
Solution: As of 2023, RBI permitted banks from 18 countries to trade in INR.
186. Which institution released the ‘Spring 2023 Economic Forecast’?
(a) World Bank
(b) European Commission
(c) WEF
(d) IMF
(e) None of the above
Answer: (b) European Commission
Solution: The European Commission released the ‘Spring 2023 Economic Forecast’.
187. Indian companies have been allowed to list on foreign exchanges through which institution?
(a) SEBI
(b) IFSC
(c) RBI
(d) NSE
(e) None of the above
Answer: (b) IFSC
Solution: Indian companies are allowed to list on foreign exchanges through the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC).
188. RBI has selected which companies to use AI and ML to improve regulatory supervision?
(a) McKinsey and Accenture
(b) McKinsey and IBM
(c) Deloitte and Accenture
(d) Deloitte and IBM
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a) McKinsey and Accenture
Solution: RBI selected McKinsey and Accenture to deploy AI and ML in supervisory tech.
189. India has settled its first-ever crude oil payment to which country in local currency?
(a) UAE
(b) Russia
(c) Iran
(d) Malaysia
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a) UAE
Solution: India settled its first-ever crude oil payment to UAE in local currency (INR).
190. ‘Governor of the Year’ Award for 2023 was conferred recently to the Governor of which country?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) India
(c) Bangladesh
(d) United Kingdom
(e) None of the above
Answer: (b) India
Solution: Former RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das received the ‘Governor of the Year’ Award in 2023.