QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

1. Efficiency of X is 33.33% more than the sum of efficiencies of Y and Z and efficiency of Z is 83.33% less than the sum of efficiencies of X and Y together. If X and Z together can complete 75% of work in 12 days, then find in how many days Y can complete 130% of total work.

(a) 40
(b) 48
(c) 52
(d) 56
(e) 60

2. Highest root of the equation $6x^2 + 13x + 6 = 0$ is n, then find the value of $125^n$.

(a) $\frac{1}{25}$
(b) 0.50
(c) 5
(d) $\frac{1}{5}$
(e) 25

Directions (3-6): In the following questions, two statements are numbered as A and B. On solving these statements, we get quantities A and B respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

(a) Quantity A ≥ Quantity B
(b) Quantity A ≤ Quantity B
(c) Quantity A < Quantity B
(d) Quantity A > Quantity B
(e) Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation

3.
Quantity A: $(x – 6) (2x – 5)2^{2n} = 0,$ n= smallest whole number
Quantity B: $ y^3 = 343$

4. Ratio of water to juice in a mixture A is 9:7. 80 liters of this mixture is taken out, and the remaining mixture is named as mixture B. When 8 liters of water is added to B, then a new mixture C is formed in which the ratio of juice to water becomes 5:7.

Quantity A: Find the quantity of water in mixture B.
Quantity B: 91 liters

5. P and Q started a business with initial investments of Rs. (x + y), (y − x). After 4 months, P increased his investment by Rs. 2000. After 6 months from the start, R joined them with an investment of Rs. (2x − y). If at the end of the year the ratio of profit of P to that of Q and R together is 7:3,

Quantity A: 30% of (15y − 90x)
Quantity B: Find the value of double the initial investment of R, if the profit share of Q and R is equal and x + y = 35000.

6.
Quantity A: Find the area (in cm2cm^2cm2) of a square whose area is equal to the area of a rectangle and the sum of sides of the square and width of the rectangle is 20 cm more than the length of the rectangle, and the perimeter of the rectangle is 40 cm.
Quantity B: Area of a circle is more than or equal to the area of a rectangle of sides 32 cm and 2 cm.

Directions (7-8): Consider the following number series and answer the questions based on it.

1, ?, 2, 18, 1152, 720000

7. If a is the missing term of the series, then what is the value of 75% of a?
(a) 1.75
(b) 2
(c) 1.25
(d) 0.75
(e) 1.50

8. Find the value of 6b if the ratio of b and a = 2:3
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 12
(e) 18

Directions (9-10): Find the wrong number.

9. 4.6, 11.5, 13.8, 34.5, 103.5, 362.25, 1449
(a) 13.8
(b) 11.5
(c) 362.25
(d) 103.5
(e) 34.5

10. 2.2, 28.6, 2.6, 18.2, 3.64, 7.28, 5.46
(a) 7.28
(b) 3.64
(c) 28.6
(d) 5.46
(e) 18.2

11. In a class, there are (a+10) number of students whose average weight is 40 kg. If b more students having an average weight of 48 kg are added, then the average weight of the class is increased by 2. If (b+5) students having an average weight of 44 kg are added, then the average weight of the class is increased by 1.6. Find the value of 3(a+b).

(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 15
(d) 45
(e) 60

12. The sum of 4 consecutive even numbers is (x+12), and there are 4 consecutive odd numbers in which the 2nd highest number is 37 more than the 2nd lowest even number in the previous series. The sum of the highest number of both series is 105. Find the value of x.

(a) 124
(b) 120
(c) 112
(d) 116
(e) 128

13. The ratio of ages of J and K before 6 years was 2:3. Then the ratio of the ages of J and K after 10 years becomes 3:4. If the age of L is 1.5 times the present age of K, then find the age of L 12 years ago.

(a) 65
(b) 69
(c) 72
(d) 67
(e) 70

14. A sum of Rs. P is distributed among A, B, C, and D. A received Rs. 4000, and the amount received by A is 40% of that by D. The ratio of the amount received by C and D is 1:4, and B received 60% of the amount received by C. Find the value of P.

(a) 15000
(b) 12000
(c) 24000
(d) 16000
(e) 18000

Directions (15-17): In this question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and find out the correct option.

(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x ≥ y
(d) x ≤ y
(e) x = y or no relationship could be established

15.
$\text{(I) } x^2 – 5\frac{1}{2}x + 7\frac{1}{2} = 0$
$\text{(II) } \frac{1}{1} = 2y – 2$
$y^2 – 2y + 1.75$

16.
$\text{(I) } x^2 – 4\sqrt{7}x + 21 = 0$
$\text{(II) } 2y^2 – 8\sqrt{5}x – 50 = 0$

17.
$\text{(I) } x^2 – 37\sqrt{2}x + 140 = 0$
$\text{(II) } y^2 + 13\sqrt{3}y + 120 = 0$

Directions (18-21): Study the following data given in the Pie Chart and answer the questions.

The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total cost of a company to make a unit of a product. The total revenue of the company is Rs. 156250 by selling all the products.

A. Information regarding one unit product is given:

• Gross profit = Total revenue – Total cost
• Net profit = Gross profit – Tax
• Tax = 20% of Gross profit
• Net profit/unit = Rs. 1000
• Advertisement cost is Rs. 50 more than the tax value.

B. Unit sold = 50

C. Selling price is the same for all the units.

18. Find the difference between the total cost of 20 units and the total advertisement cost of 30 units.

(a) 30500
(b) 25000
(c) 28500
(d) 27000
(e) 26500

19. If no tax is deducted, then find the sum of the packaging cost of 10 units and the net profit earned by selling those items.

(a) 14900.75
(b) 15200.25
(c) 14755.25
(d) 14843.75
(e) 15900

20. If manufacturing one unit of an item requires 15 kg of material, which consists of P material and Q material. If per kg of P material costs Rs. 30 and the total cost of P material is Rs. 300, then find the per kg cost of Q material.

(a) 70.5
(b) 71.25
(c) 65.75
(d) 68.5
(e) 72

21. If the selling price per unit is increased by 40% and the gross profit remains the same, then find the difference between the new advertisement cost of 4 items and the previous advertisement cost of 4 items.

(a) 400
(b) 600
(c) 800
(d) 200
(e) None of these

22. A sum of Rs. PPP is invested for t years at 12% simple rate of interest, while another sum of Rs. ‘P + 1200’ is invested for 2 years at 20% annual rate of compound interest such that the total interest amount received from both schemes is Rs. 6768. If sum PPP when invested for t years at 10% simple rate of interest gives 3000 as interest, then find the amount received from Rs. (P + 1200).

(a) 9832
(b) 10368
(c) 8932
(d) 9560
(e) None of these

23. Two persons A and B started a partnership with initial capitals of Rs. 20000 and Rs. 30000, respectively, and after 4 months, B took out 50% of his capital, and after 2 more months, C joined them with initial capital of Rs. 36000. If the difference between the total annual profit of A and C is Rs. 1800, then the total annual profit of A and B together is how much more than the annual profit of C alone?

(a) 19832
(b) 18360
(c) 19500
(d) 19800
(e) 18944

Directions (24-27): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give an answer.

(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

(b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(d) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(e) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

24. Set P contains four consecutive odd numbers, while set Q contains six consecutive even numbers. Find the sum of the largest numbers from both the sets.

Statement I: Largest number of set P is 1 less than the smallest number of set Q.
Statement II: Sum of the smallest number from both the sets together is 29.

25. Ratio of the marked price of item Y to the selling price of item X is 5:4. Then find the profit earned after selling item X.

Statement I: 20% discount offered on item X and total profit amount earned after selling both the items together is Rs. 130.
Statement II: Profit % earned after selling item Y is 16.66% and the marked-up percent on item Y is 66.66%.

26. When the length of a rectangle was increased by 20% and breadth remains constant, then the area was increased by 100 sq. cm. What is the perimeter of the rectangle?

Statement I: After increasing the length, the rectangle becomes a square.
Statement II: After increasing the length, all the angles of the rectangle become 90 degrees.

27. Raj invested a sum of Rs. 80,000 in scheme P offering simple interest. What is the interest earned by him after 2 years?

Statement I: If Kamal had invested the same money for the same time at the same rate of interest but compounded annually, he would have gained Rs. 1800 more.
Statement II: Scheme Q offers an interest rate of 10%, compounded annually. If Kamal had invested the money partially in Scheme P and rest in Scheme Q, then the interest earned by him after 2 years will be Rs. 15600.

28. Downstream distance covered by boat A in ‘t − 5’ hours is the same as the upstream distance covered by it in ‘t + 5’ hours. If the speed of boat A in still water is 96.1 km/h and the speed of the stream is 7.5 km/h, then find the downstream distance covered by boat A in ‘t + 4’ hours.

(a) 230
(b) 234
(c) 220
(d) 204
(e) 194

Directions (29-33): What approximate value should come in the place of the ? mark?

29. $?^2 \times 18.66 – 384.76 = 8.32^3 + 229.28$

(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 8
(d) 12
(e) 15

30. 29.89% of 298 + 44.71% of 197 = $\sqrt{?}$ + 163.55

(a) 256
(b) 248
(c) 272
(d) 304
(e) 236

31. $48..42 \times 10.25 + 3.18 + 34.401^2 = ? \times 47.22 $

(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 24
(d) 28
(e) 39

32. $\sqrt{2301} \times 18.25 + \sqrt{(18.34 + 16.27 + 3.44 \times 4.98)}$

(a) 847
(b) 863
(c) 851
(d) 871
(e) 856

33. $\left(\sqrt{15.03 + \sqrt{24.99}}^2 + 141.07 – 2\sqrt{396}\right) = ?^2 – 107$

(a) 31
(b) 23
(c) 17
(d) 21
(e) 13

Directions (34-38): Study the following line chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.

The table given below shows the data about the number of articles (Professional + Traditional) purchased by Ekansh and Vaayan together in three different years.

Note: Traditional items purchased by Ekansh and Vaayan together in 2021, 2022, and 2023 are 38, 88, and 114 respectively.

Years	Total Items (Professional)	Ekansh		Vaayan		Professional
	+ Traditional purchased by Ekansh and Vaayan					+ Traditional items GI  purchased by Vaayan
		Professional	Traditional	Professional	Traditional
2021	100	—-	2P	3P	—-	50
2022	150	—-	3P	—-	—-	70
2023	231	a	5P	—-	b	99

34. Find which one is true.

I. b = 75% of a
II. a = 6P
III. b =  2P + 28

(a) Only I
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and III
(d) I and II

35. Out of the total professional items purchased by Vaayan in 2022, Graphics and Metaphors were purchased in the ratio 5:4. If only 20% of the Graphics items were used by him in that year, then find the difference between the number of unused Graphics items in 2022 by Vaayan and the number of traditional items purchased by Ekansh in 2023.

(a) 64
(b) 56
(c) 52
(d) 48
(e) None of these

36. If the number of professional items purchased by Ekansh in 2024 is 50% more than that purchased by him in 2022, then find the number of professional items sold by Ekansh in 2024 is what percent of the total traditional items purchased by Vaayan in 2021 and 2023 together?

(a) 98.50%
(b) 97.05%
(c) 95.25%
(d) 94%
(e) None of these

37. If out of the total traditional items purchased by Ekansh in 2023, 30% are used in household and the rest are used as gifts, out of the total gift items, the ratio of the number of gifts given to males and females is 3:4, then find the number of traditional gift items given to females by Ekansh in 2023.

(a) 36
(b) 32
(c) 28
(d) 24
(e) None of these

38. Find the difference between the average of traditional items purchased by Vaayan in all the years and the average of professional items purchased by Ekansh in all the years together.

(a) $\frac{24}{3}$
(b) $\frac{22}{3}$
(c) 7
(d) $\frac{29}{3}$
(e) None of these

Directions (39-43): Study the following data given in the Pie Chart and table and answer the questions.

The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the number of Employees = 50000 (Private + Govt.) in four different cities. The table shows the number of private employees in each city.

Note:

1. The ratio of private employees in Q and government employees in R is 3:4.
2. The number of private employees in P is double the number of government employees in R.

39. If out of the total number of government employees in city P, 45% work for 12 hours daily and the rest work for 8 hours daily, and out of the total private employees in city Q, 55% work for 11 hours daily and the rest work for 9 hours daily, then find the total hours in a week worked by government employees in city P and private employees in city Q.

(a) 356200
(b) 345600
(c) 349300
(d) 329500
(e) None of these

40. If 20% of the total employees of city S are transferred to city T and the pie chart is formed using the previous data (except S), then find the central angle of city T.

(a) $30.2^\circ$
(b) $25.6^\circ$
(c) $27^\circ$
(d) $28.8^\circ$
(e) None of these

41. The number of government employees in city R is approximately how much percentage less than the total number of private employees in city P and S together?

(a) 75%
(b) 70%
(c) 72%
(d) 64%
(e) None of these

42. Out of the total private employees in P, 45% are banking employees and the rest are non-banking employees. Out of the total government employees in city Q, the number of banking employees is 25% of the private banking employees in P, and the rest are non-banking employees. Find the difference between the number of private non-banking employees in P and the number of government non-banking employees in Q.

(a) 1100
(b) 3300
(c) 2200
(d) 4400
(e) None of these

43. If out of the total government employees in S, 33.33% are female and the rest are male. Out of the total male government employees in city S, 40% are living on rent and the rest are living in their own houses. Find the ratio of the number of male government employees in city S who are living in their own houses to the number of private employees in city P.

(a) 7:5
(b) 5:7
(c) 3:5
(d) 5:3
(e) None of these

Directions (44-48): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow:

There are three sports clubs P, Q, and R. The number of athletes in club Q in 2012 and 2020 is 4b4b4b and CCC respectively. The ratio of the number of athletes in club Q in 2012 and 2016 is 4:5 respectively.

The number of athletes in club P in 2016 is 6 more than that in Q in 2016. The number of athletes in club R in 2012 is 2C2C2C and in 2016 is 42 more than that in 2012. The ratio of the number of athletes in club R in 2016 and 2020 is 16:15 respectively.

The total number of athletes in club Q in all the three years together is 300, and that in R is 522. The total number of athletes in club P in 2012 is 16 more than the number of athletes in club R in the same year.

44. Find the difference between the number of athletes in club P in 2016 and the number of athletes in club R in 2012 and 2020 together.

(a) 202
(b) 199
(c) 194
(d) 207
(e) None of these

45. If 37.5% of the athletes in club R in 2016 have been selected for national levels and of the national-level athletes selected from club R in 2016, $\frac{1}{4}$ got rejected before the final round, then the number of athletes who got selected for the national-level final round in 2016 is what percent of the number of athletes in club Q in 2012?

(a) 49%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 54%
(e) 52%

46. Find the average of the number of athletes in club P in 2012, club Q in 2020, and club R in 2016.

(a) 144.33
(b) 142.67
(c) 143
(d) 141.27
(e) None of these

47. Out of the total number of athletes in 2020 in club R, 45% have opted for coaches. Then find the sum of the number of athletes in club R in 2020 who did not opt for coaches and the number of athletes in 2016 in club Q.

(a) 216
(b) 219
(c) 224
(d) 208
(e)  None of these

48. If the number of athletes in 2020 in club S is the same as the difference between the number of athletes in club P in 2016 and club Q in 2020, then find the difference between the number of athletes in club R in 2012 and the number of athletes in club S in 2020.

(a) 92
(b) 94
(c) 90
(d) 88
(e) None of these

49. A man goes from P to Q and covers 13\frac{1}{3}31​ of the distance by car and 120 km of the distance by train of speed 30 km/hr, and the remaining distance by bus. The total time taken is 15 hours, and the ratio of the speed of the car to the bus is 5:4. Find the time taken by the man to cover the distance between P and Q using the car, if the distance between P and Q is 600 km.

(a) 8 hrs
(b) 16 hrs
(c) 10 hrs
(d) 12 hrs
(e) None of these

50. A dishonest seller sells his goods at a loss of 10% but uses 750 grams of weight instead of 1 kg weight and obtains a profit of a%. Find the profit percentage obtained by the seller if he sells his goods at a profit of a% and uses 750 grams of weight of 1 kg weight.

(a) 65%
(b) 60%
(c) 45%
(d) 50%
(e) None of these

REASONING & COMPUTER APTITUDE

Directions (51-55):

Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.

13 houses are situated in a linear row from west to east, numbered 1 to 13, all facing north. Out of these 13 houses, 9 houses are occupied by 9 persons, and the remaining 4 are vacant. E lives in the 7th house.

One person lives between C and A, where A does not live at the extreme ends. Three houses are there between C and E. Immediate neighboring houses of C are not vacant. I and F are immediate neighbors. D lives second to the right of A. Four houses are there between D and H. H lives to the right of G and to the left of B. The number of houses to the right of F is one less than the number of houses to the left of C. G does not live at extreme ends.

51. How many persons live between the one who lives second from the right end and A?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five

52. Who among the following lives between E and A?

(a) D
(b) H
(c) B
(d) I
(e) None

53. Find the odd one out.

(a) GI
(b) DC
(c) HE
(d) FH
(e) EA

54. What is the position of D’s house with respect to H’s house?

(a) 4th Right
(b) 5th Left
(c) 3rd Left
(d) 5th Right
(e) None of these

55. How many persons are living to the left of B?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None

Directions (56-60): A number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement:

Input: 346789 846063 286112 541206 623714 107825

Step 1: 346781 84609 28614 541236 623716 107825
Step 2: 76781 12609 10614 91236 83716 17825
Step 3: 67781 12690 01641 19263 38761 17852
Step 4: 1782 1690 1642 8266 5762 6854
Step 5: 64 100 49 81 49 36 100 144 14464 196 81

Find the different steps of output using the above-mentioned logic for the following input:
Input: 55858 82944 19816 29475 73847 68096

56. Which of the following numbers is 5th from the right end in Step 4?

(a) 1854
(b) 1898
(c) 1868
(d) 1866
(e) 1962

57. How many odd numbers are there in Step 3?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five

58. What is the sum of numbers 3rd from the left end and 2nd from the right end in Step 5?

(a) 244
(b) 109
(c) 485
(d) 205
(e) 350

59. What is the difference between the numbers 4th from the left end and 5th from the right end in Step 2?

(a) 492
(b) 525
(c) 616
(d) 509
(e) None of these

60. Which of the following numbers is 7th from the left end in Step 5?

(a) 16
(b) 64
(c) 81
(d) 144
(e) 289

Directions (61-64): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

Conditions:

1. All the consonants except M, N, P are coded as 1–9 in the same order. M, N, P are coded as @, &, * respectively.
2. If the 1st letter of a word is a vowel and the last letter is M/N/P, then that vowel is coded as the code of the last letter.
3. If a word has an odd number of letters, then the 1st vowel (if present) is coded as ‘#’ and if a word has an even number of letters and ≥2 consonants are there after the first vowel, then that vowel is coded as ‘$’.
4. If the last letter is a vowel, then that vowel is coded as “%”.
5. If there are more than two repeated vowels, then the consonant adjacent to them is coded as the code of the next letter of the consonant according to the alphabetical order.
6. If there are more than three consonants which are immediately followed by vowels, then those vowels are coded as “+”.
7. If none of the above conditions are satisfied for a vowel, then that vowel is coded as “^”.

61. What will be the codes of the words “Palm” and “Outside” respectively?

(a) 1 > 9#, #^43^3%
(b) *$\$$9@, #^43^3%
(c) 1#9@, @$\$$3%3#
(d) *$\$$9@, @%3 > 3 >
(e) None of these

62. If the word “DE___E” is a meaningful word, then what is its code?

(a) 3 ^ 2 ^ 3 ^
(b) 3 + 2 ^ 3 ^
(c) 3 + 2 + 3 +
(d) 3 @ 2 @ 3 +
(e) None of these

63. Which of the following words are coded as “98^23, *^^3” respectively?

(a) LOCKS, PAIN
(b) ZBERA, PACK
(c) LYARD, PAID
(d) ZKING, PARK
(e) LWEIS, PALM

64. What will be the code of “FACEBOOK”?

(a) $4 \$ 2 \wedge \perp \wedge\wedge 8$
(b) $4 \wedge 2 \$ \perp \wedge\wedge 8$
(c) $4 + 2 + \perp \wedge\wedge 8$
(d) $ 4 \$ 2 \wedge 1 \perp ++ 8$
(e) None of these

Directions (65-67): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:

Twelve persons were born in two different years, 1998 and 1999. The number of persons born in 1998 is more than the number of persons born in 1999.

F was born in 1999 in a month having an even number of days. The gap between the month of F and H is 3. K was born in the same month as H. There is a five-month gap between H and L. B was born in November. B and X were born in different years. One person was born between the one who was born in July and X. One person was born between B and M. P was born just after B. S was born in a month of 30 days and before K. There is a gap of four months between M and U. The gap of months between B and D is the same as the number of persons born before T. T was born before X.

65. When was D born?

(a) July 1998
(b) May 1998
(c) August 1998
(d) April 1999
(e) August 1999

66. Who among the following was born in October 1999?

(a) X
(b) H
(c) F
(d) T
(e) L

67. How many persons were born between K and S?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2
(e) None

Directions (68–70): In each of the following questions, two statements have been given. Analyze the given statements and answer whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not.

(a) If data in the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If data in the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If data given in both I & II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If data in both statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.

68. In a family of 6 members, how is G related to H?

Statement I:
G is the only son of B. D is the father of B. C is the aunt of G. D has only 1 daughter. C’s sister is the parent of G. H is unmarried.

Statement II:
G is the child of E. D is the grandfather of G. B is the father of G. H is the sister of B. C is the daughter of D and the sister of E.

69. Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V went to a mall on different days of the same week, starting from Monday till Sunday. Who went immediately before the one who went on Wednesday?

Statement I:
S went immediately before R. P went one of the days after Friday. 4 friends went between P and T. R did not go on Thursday. V did not go on Wednesday. 2 friends went between Q and U.

Statement II:
V went before U. Q went 3 friends after V. S went 2 friends before P. 1 friend went between T and S. T went before S.

70. Six students A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table facing inside. Who sits immediately to the left of F?

Statement I:
Two persons sit between A and B. C sits 2nd to the right of B.

Statement II:
As many sit between E and D as between D and B. D sits 2nd to the left of F.

Directions (71–74): In every question, two rows are given, and to find out the resultant of a particular row, you need to follow the following conditions:

Conditions:

1. If an odd number is followed by a perfect square number, then the resultant will be the positive difference between the two.
2. If an even number is followed by an even number, then the resultant will be the addition of the positive difference between the two numbers with the higher number.
3. If an odd number is followed by an odd prime number, then the resultant will be the positive difference between the two.
4. If an odd number is followed by an odd non-prime number, then the resultant will be the average of the two numbers.
5. If an odd number is followed by an even number which is not a perfect square number, then the resultant will be twice the positive difference of the two numbers.
6. If an even number is followed by an odd number, then the resultant will be the addition of the two numbers.

71. If “X” is the resultant of Row 2, then what is the sum of the resultants of both the rows?
R1: 19 35 X
R2: 30 18 17

(a) 87
(b) 85
(c) 91
(d) 93
(e) 83

72. What is the subtraction of the resultant of row 2 from the sum of resultants of row 1 and row 3?
R1: 23 16 10
R2: 33 28 15
R3: 36 21 15

(a) 17
(b) 20
(c) 23
(d) 24
(e) 29

73. If “X” is the resultant of Row 2 and “Y” is the resultant of Row 3, then what is the resultant of row 1?
R1: 27 X Y
R2: 23 16 12
R3: 42 8 50

(a) 136
(b) 142
(c) 155
(d) 170
(e) 160

74. What is the resultant of the new row made by arranging the resultants of the 3 rows in ascending order from left to right?
R1: 14 12 29
R2: 33 26 20
R3: 15 28 16

(a) 24
(b) 10
(c) 35
(d) 48
(e) 60

75. P is 9m to the north of Q. R is 4m to the north of S. T is 8m to the west of S. R is 6m to the east of Q. W is to the east of P north of S. T is 7m to the south of U. V is 4m to the east of U.

(a) TV
(b) QW
(c) UP
(d) TQ
(e) PR

Directions (76–78): In the following questions, the symbols $\$$, @, #, *, and & are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

• P $\$$ Q means P is neither less nor equal to Q.
• P @ Q means P is neither greater nor equal to Q.
• P # Q means P is neither less nor greater than Q.
• P * R means P is not greater than Q.
• P & Q means P is not less than Q.

Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II, and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

76.
Statement: U @ O $\$$ N * I @ E; N # M @ A; O & W $ D

Conclusions:
(I) O & A
(II) I $\$$ D
(III) W @ E

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Both conclusions I and II follow
(c) All the conclusions follow
(d) Either conclusion I or II follows
(e) None of the conclusions follows

77.
Statement: N $\$$ M # Z # D @ W * P; T $ O $ Z * H

Conclusions:
(I) W @ H
(II) T $\$$ D
(III) P & N

(a) Only conclusion II follows
(b) Both conclusions II and III follow
(c) All the conclusions follow
(d) Either conclusion II or III follows
(e) None of the conclusions follow

78.
Statements: Z @ Y * A @ O; Y & A # U $\$$ X

Conclusions:
(I) O $\$$ X
(II) U $\$$ Z
(III) A & S

(a) Only conclusion III follows
(b) Both conclusions I and III follow
(c) Only conclusion I follows
(d) Either conclusion I or III follows
(e) None of the conclusions follow

Directions (79–81): In the questions below, there are four statements followed by three conclusions I, II, and III. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

79. Statement:
All A are B.
Only a few B are C.
All C are D.
No D is E.

Conclusions:
(I) All B being E is a possibility
(II) Some A is C
(III) Some B is not E

(a) Only conclusion III follows
(b) Both conclusions I and III follow
(c) All the conclusions follow
(d) Either conclusion II or III follows
(e) None of the conclusions follow

80. Statement:

• No P is Q.
• All R is Q.
• Only a few R are S.
• All S are T.

Conclusions:
(I) Some Q is not S.
(II) All Q being S is a possibility.
(III) Some T are not P.

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Both conclusions I and III follow
(c) Only conclusion III follows
(d) Either conclusion I or II follows
(e) None of the conclusions follow

81. Statements:

• All J are K.
• Only a few L are L.
• All L are M.
• No M is N.

Conclusions:
(I) Some L are N.
(II) Some K are not N.
(III) All N being N is a possibility.

(a) Only conclusion II follows
(b) Both conclusions II and III follow
(c) All the conclusions II follow
(d) Only conclusion on III follows
(e) None of the conclusions follow

82. To manage the heavy workload, the workers of company A are demanding to increase the number of workers. If the demand is not fulfilled by the company, the workers are threatening the company to go on strike.

Which one of the following will strengthen or weaken the above statement?

I: From the last few years, due to heavy workload, the workers are working extra hours and did not go on leave.
II: From the last six months, the workers of company A take rest in between work, thus the work is not being completed.

(a) I is the work and II is strong
(b) Both are strong
(c) Both are weak
(d) I is strong and II is weak
(e) Either I or II is weak

Directions (83–84): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both follow
(e) None follows

83. Statement: The restaurant nearest to the station is experiencing heavy rush in peak hours. So the restaurant owner decided to close the cafe during the peak hour and appoint more workers.

Conclusions:
(I) During the peak hours, some customers will go to other restaurants.
(II) By appointing new workers, the work can be managed smoothly and the new workers will take the place of the old workers.

84. Statement: After country D has introduced the AI learning course, there is a notable 25% decrease in the number of students who are moving to country K.

Conclusions:
(I) Country K has offered an AI learning course.
(II) The introduction of AI learning courses in country D assured jobs of good salaries to students.

Directions (83-84): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both follow
(e) None follows

83. Statement: The restaurant nearest to the station is experiencing heavy rush in peak hours. So the restaurant owner decided to close the cafe during the peak hour and appoint more workers.

Conclusions:
I. During the peak hours some customers will go to other restaurants.
II. By appointing new workers, the work can be managed smoothly and the new workers will take the place of the old workers.

84. Statement: After country D has introduced the AI learning course, there is a notable 25% decrease in the number of students who are moving to country K.

Conclusions:
I. Country K has offered an AI learning course.
II. The introduction of the AI learning course in country D assured jobs of good salaries to students.

Directions (85-86): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer:

(a) If only assumption I is implicit
(b) If only assumption II is implicit
(c) If either I or II is implicit
(d) If both I and II are implicit

85. Statement: Recruitment board has ordered to release vacancies for 2000 vacant posts. But the board has also mentioned that the examination will be conducted if only the applications received is 40 times the number of posts.

Assumptions:
I. There has not been recruitment at the vacant posts by the board for the last 4 years.
II. The arrangement of the examination is a long and costly process.

86. Statement: Organization A has launched a new website through which people can know about the benefits of their products. The website received positive feedback from the media also. But at present, only 20% of the public are using the website. So the HR department has decided to make changes to the website.

Assumptions:
I. The website is being used only by the age group of 30 or more.
II. The website was not built in the observation of the HR department.

Directions (87-88):
In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and, on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing. Give answer:

(a) If only I follows
(b) If only II follows
(c) If either I or II follows
(d) If neither I nor II follows
(e) If both I and II follow

87. There is an increase in the number of waterborne diseases in area D of country L because the people of area D are using tap water without any filtration.

Course of Action:
I. The supply of water in area D should be reduced.
II. To save people from waterborne diseases, a public awareness program should be arranged so that people can be aware of the importance of using clean water.

88. Statement: Exporters in the capital are alleging that commercial banks are violating a Reserve Bank of India directive to operate a post-shipment export credit denominated in foreign currency at international rates from April this year.

Course of Action:
I. The officers concerned in the commercial banks are to be suspended.
II. The RBI should be asked to stop giving such directives to commercial banks.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 89 – 93):
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There are three stacks i.e., A, B, and C from west to east, which contain different numbers of boxes placed one above the other.

Height of each of the boxes is the same. W is in the north-west of E. E is two boxes below P in the same stack. Four boxes are placed between H and the box which is in the west of W in the same stack. K is in the east of H. Two boxes are below E in the same stack. There is no box towards the east of E. Three boxes are placed between K and P in the same stack. Five boxes are placed between O, which is at the top, and N in the same stack, which is not in the east of S. M, which is placed below P’s stack, is in the east of N’s stack. Box O is to the east of box H. S is placed at the bottom and in the stack which is at the extreme west. The number of boxes above E in the same stack is two less than the number of boxes placed below H in the same stack. Two boxes are placed between W and T in the same stack, which is third from the top.

89. Which among the following is not true with respect to box T?
(a) Box T is kept immediately south of box P.
(b) Box T is kept north-east of box S.
(c) Box T is kept above box N.
(d) Only one box is kept between box T and box O when both are in the same stack.
(e) All are true.

90. Which among the following pairs of boxes are kept in the bottommost position?
(a) SE
(b) NE
(c) SN
(d) KS
(e) None of these

91. Which among the following box is box numbered 4 of stack B?
(a) W
(b) N
(c) M
(d) O
(e) None of these

92. How many boxes are kept above box?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
(e) None of these

93. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form a group. Which one of that does not belong to that group?
(a) WN
(b) ME
(c) HS
(d) KT
(e) OT

94. Statement: Police have rescued 240 human trafficking victims, mainly children from forced labor and prostitution in a major operation in Burundi and Tanzania.
(I) Mostly children fall into the hands of traffickers in their own countries and abroad.
(II) Mainly Burundi and Tanzania witnessed the problem of human trafficking.
(III) Almost every country in the world is affected by trafficking, whether as a country of origin, transit, or destination for victims.

Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement?
(a) Only I and II are implicit
(b) Only III is implicit
(c) Only III and II are implicit
(d) All are implicit
(e) None is implicit

95. Kumkum is 23m to the west of Ritika. Ritika is 25m to the north of Vinita. Vinita is 20m to the east of Lavnya. Laxmi is 21m to the north of Lavnya. If Kumkum has to meet Laxmi through the shortest distance and then has to meet Vinita from Laxmi’s point through the shortest distance, then what is the total distance travelled by Kumkum?
(a) 30m
(b) 25m
(c) 34m
(d) 38m
(e) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS (96 – 100): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:

Eight players – E, G, I, K, N, P, T, and W are sitting in a row facing north. Each player wears different jersey numbers viz. – 10, 11, 15, 16, 18, 19, 23, and 28. All the information is not necessary in the same order.

P sits fourth to the left of the one who wears 28 number jersey, none of them sits at the end. K sits third to the left of W, who wears 11 number jersey. The number of players sitting to the left of K is one less than the number of players sitting to the right of G, who wears a prime number jersey wore by G. T’s jersey number is 5 more than I’s jersey number, who sits third to the right of the one who wears 18 number jersey. I and W sit together. E doesn’t wear an even number jersey and sits third to the left of N. N doesn’t wear a prime number jersey.

96. What is the position of N with respect to the one who wears 23 number jersey?
(a) Third to the right
(b) Immediate left
(c) Second to the right
(d) Fourth to the left
(e) None of these

97. Four of the five are related to each other in a certain way and thus form a group, find the odd one out?
(a) P – 11
(b) E – 10
(c) W – 18
(d) K – 23
(e) I – 19

98. How many players are sitting between N and the one who wears 11 number jersey?
(a) As many players sitting to the right of G
(b) Three
(c) As many players are sitting between P and the one who wears 10
(d) Four
(e) Either (a) or (c)

99. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. P sits third to the left of the one who wears 11.
II. T sits second to the right of the one who wears 28.
III. E wears jersey number 5 more than P’s jersey number.
(a) Only III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only II and III
(d) Only II
(e) None of the statements is true.

100. Which of the following persons are sitting between K and the one who wears 23 number jersey?
I. The one who wears 19 jersey number
II. P
III. The one who sits second to the right of the one who wears 10 number jersey.
(a) Only III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only II and III
(d) Only II
(e) None of these

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

DIRECTIONS (101-105): Read the following passage and answer the questions given below. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions.

In recent years, e-commerce has witnessed a remarkable surge in popularity in rural India. This phenomenon, driven by several factors, presents both opportunities and challenges for the future of the Indian economy.

One key driver of e-commerce growth in rural areas is the increasing penetration of internet connectivity. With the expansion of mobile networks and affordable data plans, more and more rural residents are gaining access to the online world. This opens up a vast new market for online retailers, who can now offer their products to a previously untapped customer base.

Furthermore, the rise of e-commerce platforms in local languages has further facilitated online shopping in rural India. By removing the language barrier, these platforms make it easier for rural customers to browse products, understand descriptions, and navigate the shopping process. Additionally, the convenience of online shopping, with its easy access to a wider variety of products and competitive prices, is particularly appealing to rural residents who may have limited access to physical stores with diverse offerings.

However, the growth of e-commerce in rural India is not without its challenges. One major concern is the lack of adequate logistics infrastructure in many rural areas. Delivering products to remote locations can be expensive and time-consuming, which can impact the overall cost and efficiency of online transactions. Additionally, concerns exist regarding the digital literacy of rural populations, as some individuals may require assistance navigating online platforms and completing transactions securely.

Despite these challenges, the potential benefits of e-commerce for rural India are undeniable. By providing access to a wider variety of products at competitive prices, e-commerce can empower rural consumers and enhance their economic opportunities. Additionally, the growth of the e-commerce sector can create new job opportunities in rural areas, especially in areas such as logistics and customer service.

101. What is the main idea of the passage?

(a) E-commerce is facing a decline in popularity in rural India.
(b) The rise of e-commerce in rural India presents both opportunities and challenges.
(c) E-commerce is only beneficial for urban areas.
(d) Rural India has limited access to the internet.
(e) None of the above.

102. What is a key driver of e-commerce growth in rural areas, according to the passage?

(a) The decline of physical stores in rural areas.
(b) The increasing popularity of social media.
(c) The rising cost of living in rural areas.
(d) The increasing penetration of internet connectivity.
(e) All of the above.

103. What challenge does the passage mention regarding e-commerce in rural India?

(a) The high cost of internet data plans.
(b) The limited variety of products available online.
(c) The lack of adequate logistics infrastructure.
(d) The absence of online payment options.
(e) All of the above.

104. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?

(a) E-commerce platforms in local languages make online shopping easier for rural customers.
(b) E-commerce can create new job opportunities in rural areas.
(c) Rural residents face limited access to diverse product offerings in physical stores.
(d) The rise of e-commerce eliminates the need for physical stores altogether.
(e) None of the above.

105. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Strongly negative towards e-commerce in rural areas.
(b) Enthusiastic about the potential of e-commerce in rural areas.
(c) Neutral and objective in its presentation of the topic.
(d) Primarily focused on the challenges faced by e-commerce in rural areas.
(e) None of the above.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 106-110): Read the following passage and answer the questions given below. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions.

The rapid advancement of automation technologies is transforming the global workforce, raising concerns about job displacement while also presenting potential opportunities for increased productivity and economic growth. This passage explores the complex implications of automation for the future of work.

One of the most significant concerns surrounding automation is the potential for widespread job losses. As machines become increasingly capable of performing tasks previously done by humans, certain jobs may become obsolete or require significantly fewer workers. This could lead to increased unemployment and economic hardship, particularly for individuals employed in sectors heavily reliant on manual labor or repetitive tasks.

However, the impact of automation is not solely negative. Automation can also lead to increased efficiency and productivity, allowing businesses to produce goods and services at a lower cost and with greater speed. This can stimulate economic growth and create new job opportunities in areas such as design, engineering, and maintenance of automated systems.

Additionally, automation can free up human workers from tedious and monotonous tasks, allowing them to focus on more creative, strategic, and interpersonal aspects of work.

The future of work in the age of automation will likely require a multifaceted approach. Individuals and educational institutions will need to adapt by developing the skills and knowledge necessary to thrive in an automated economy. This may involve acquiring expertise in areas such as data analysis, critical thinking, and problem-solving, along with strong communication and collaboration skills.

106. What is the central theme of the passage?
(a) Automation will eliminate all manual labor jobs in the future.
(b) The future of work will remain unchanged despite automation.
(c) Automation presents both challenges and opportunities for the future of work.
(d) Educational institutions are not prepared for the impact of automation.
(e) All of the above

107. According to the passage, what is a potential consequence of automation?
(a) Increased job creation in the technology sector.
(b) Reduced need for human workers in specific sectors.
(c) Elimination of the need for repetitive tasks altogether.
(d) All of the above.
(e) None of the above

108. What positive outcome of automation is mentioned in the passage?
(a) Lower production costs for businesses.
(b) Creation of new jobs requiring different skillsets.
(c) Increased leisure time for workers.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
(e) Both (a) and (c).

109. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
(a) Automation requires adaptation in terms of educational programs and individual skill development.
(b) Policymakers need to consider measures to address potential job losses due to automation.
(c) The future of work in the age of automation demands primarily technical skills.
(d) Automation can free up human workers to engage in more creative and strategic tasks.
(e) None of the above

110. What is the author’s perspective on automation?
(a) Strongly critical and opposed to the advancement of automation.
(b) Optimistic and sees only positive outcomes from automation.
(c) Cautious and acknowledges both potential benefits and drawbacks.
(d) Neutral and avoids expressing any personal opinions on the topic.
(e) None of the above

DIRECTIONS (111-120): In the passages given below, there are blanks, each followed by a word given in bold. Every blank has four alternative words given in options (a), (b), (c), and (d). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. If the word given in bold after the blank is your answer, mark (e), i.e., ‘No change required.’

The idea of the documentary was __111__ (deceive) by Krishna in the year 2007 while he was __112__ (attaining) to his undergraduate course __113__ (off) the Western International University, New Delhi, India as a possible __114__ (enmity) for an annual inter-university competition __115__ (furor) SIFE (Students in Free Enterprise) __116__ (as well as) his institution rejected his __117__ (prosperous) on account of non-feasibility. __118__ (sincere) then he is independently working on this documentary and has __119__ (likewise) interviewed famous personalities from all walks of __120__ (sphere).

111.
(a) accepted
(b) conceived
(c) borrowed
(d) taken
(e) No change required

112.
(a) attending
(b) arriving
(c) catching
(d) noticing
(e) No change required

113.
(a) on
(b) in
(c) at
(d) as
(e) No change required

114.
(a) exit
(b) entry
(c) retirement
(d) allocation
(e) No change required

115.
(a) for
(b) from
(c) if
(d) form
(e) No change required

116.
(a) except
(b) only
(c) but
(d) yet
(e) No change required

117.
(a) angle
(b) proposal
(c) motion
(d) news
(e) No change required

118.
(a) since
(b) nearby
(c) convenient
(d) beside
(e) No change required

119.
(a) presently
(b) lastly
(c) old
(d) already
(e) No change required

120.
(a) light
(b) live
(c) alone
(d) life
(e) No change required

DIRECTIONS (121-123): Four or more sentences are given below. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option.

121.
A. With that, I swallowed the shampoo, and obtained most realistic results almost on the spot.
B. The man shuffled away into the back regions to make up a prescription, and after a moment I got through on the shop-telephone to the Consulate, intimating my location.
C. Then, while the pharmacist was wrapping up a six-ounce bottle of the mixture, I groaned and inquired whether he could give me something for acute gastric cramp.
D. I intended to stage a sharp gastric attack, and entering an old-fashioned pharmacy, I asked for a popular shampoo mixture, consisting of olive oil and flaked soap.

(a) DCBA
(b) DACB
(c) BDAC
(d) BCDA

122.
A. Since then, intelligence tests have been mostly used to separate dull children in school from average or bright children, so that special education can be provided to the dull.
B. In other words, intelligence tests give us a norm for each age.
C. Intelligence is expressed as Intelligence Quotient, and tests are developed to indicate what an average child of a certain age can do, what a 5-year-old can answer, but a 4-year-old cannot, for instance.
D. Binet developed the first set of such tests in the early 1900s to find out which children in school needed special attention.
E. Intelligence can be measured by tests.

(a) CDABE
(b) DECAB
(c) EDACB
(d) CBADE

123.
A. As officials, their vision of a country shouldn’t run too far beyond that of the local people with whom they have to deal.
B. Ambassadors have to choose their words.
C. To say what they feel they have to say, they appear to be denying or ignoring part of what they know.
D. So, with ambassadors as with other expatriates in black Africa, there appears at a first meeting a kind of ambivalence.
E. They do a specialized job and it is necessary for them to live ceremonial lives.

(a) BCEDA
(b) BEDAC
(c) BEADC
(d) BCDEA

DIRECTIONS (124–125):
In the given questions, three blanks are given. From the options provided, each has three words that would fit in the blanks correctly. Choose the appropriate option to complete the sentences.

124. News and social media companies have a moral ______ to ensure that they do not, directly or otherwise, deliberately ______ the facts to their audiences and pass them off for news. If it is a post-truth world we ______, this becomes especially important.

(a) obligation, distort, desire
(b) commitment, tarnish, denounce
(c) responsibility, misrepresent, inhabit
(d) purport, besmirch, stigmatize
(e) implication, enhance, reside

125. Activists in the country have long protested its ______ society that essentially ______ women from travelling, marrying or attending college without permission from a male relative, who is called their ______.

(a) benevolent, forbid, steward
(b) pre-adamite, prevent, custodian
(c) pre-eminent, restrict, protector
(d) venerable, condemns, manciple
(e) patriarchal, prohibits, guardian.

DIRECTIONS (126–130):
In each of the questions below, they have been divided into parts which may or may not have an error. Choose the part which has an error. If there is no error, choose (e), i.e., No error.

126.
(a) The state government has / (b) issued licences to farmers / (c) allowing them to sell / (d) its vegetables to hotels. / (e) No error

127.
(a) Many people decide / (b) not to buy a car / (c) last Diwali because of / (d) the high price of petrol last year / (e) No error

128.
(a) We plan to / (b) sell part of our / (c) business therefore we have / (d) to repay a loan. / (e) No error

129.
(a) The Reserve Bank of India is / (b) the only central bank in / (c) Asia which have / (d) raised interest rates in September. / (e) No error

130.
(a) Under this scheme, / (b) insurance companies will reimburse / (c) any expenditure on medicines / (d) if you submitting the original bills. / (e) No error

DIRECTIONS (131–132): In the following questions, a sentence is divided into four parts consisting of a highlighted word in each part. Choose the option reflecting the word which is either misspelt or grammatically incorrect. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose option (e), i.e., “are correct” as your answer choice.

131. The discovery of a new planet in the habitable (A) zone of a distant star system has sparked excitement among astronomers. This potentially life-supporting (B) world is much larger than Earth, with a thick atmosphere (C) composed mostly of methane. Scientists are eager to learn more about its potential (D) for harboring life.

(a) habitable
(b) life-supporting
(c) thick atmosphere
(d) potential
(e) all are correct

132. While exploring (A) the Amazon rainforest, researchers came across a previously undocumented (B) species of spider. The vibrantly colored arachnid boasts an intricate web design (C) unlike anything they’ve seen before. Further study is needed to classify it and understand its ecological role (D) within the rainforest.

(a) exploring
(b) undocumented
(c) web design
(d) ecological role
(e) all are correct

DIRECTIONS (133–137):
In each of the questions given below, a sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

133. The librarian helped the student research / an (A) / topic (B) / interesting (C).

(a) ACB
(b) BCA
(c) BAC
(d) CAB
(e) No change needed

134. Delighted (A) / with / the / surprise party / were (B) / her friends (C).

(a) BCA
(b) CBA
(c) ACB
(d) BAC
(e) No change needed

135. Concerned (A) / about (B) the rising cost of living / they are (C).

(a) BAC
(b) ACB
(c) BCA
(d) CAB
(e) No change needed

136. Having finished dinner / to play (A) / we decided (B) / a board game (C).

(a) CBA
(b) ACB
(c) BAC
(d) CAB
(e) No change needed

137. Despite / the warnings / continued (A) / the hike (B) / they (C).

(a) CAB
(b) ACB
(c) CBA
(d) BCA
(e) No change needed

DIRECTIONS (138–140):
In the given statements below, fill in the blanks from the options given.

Citizen science, the ________ (A) of ordinary people in scientific research, has emerged as a powerful tool for gathering data and ________ (B) scientific understanding. This collaborative approach allows researchers to ________ (C) the reach and achieve of their endeavors.

138. Which of the following word(s) would most appropriately fit in blank A?
(a) engagement
(b) involvement
(c) contribution
(d) participation
(e) inclusion

139. Which of the following word(s) would most appropriately fit in blank B?
(a) advancing
(b) promoting
(c) enhancing
(d) facilitating
(e) accelerating

140. Which of the following word(s) would most appropriately fit in blank C?
(a) expand
(b) broaden
(c) widen
(d) extend
(e) amplify

GENERAL/FINANCIAL AWARENESS

141. With which country, India recently (in Feb ’23) signed an agreement for the launch of the Business council to commemorate the 1st anniversary of the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)?
(a) United Arab Emirates
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Bahrain
(d) Algeria
(e) None of the above

142. Name the app that has been launched by YES Bank in collaboration with customer feedback.
(a) Iris
(b) Ivy
(c) Violet
(d) Luna
(e) Aurora

143. In May 2023, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched SAKSHAM to provide—
(a) universal access to mobile connectivity
(b) online training and medical education
(c) the quality of life of the older person
(d) financial services like availability of basic savings bank account
(e) None of the above

144. President Droupadi Murmu awarded the prestigious President’s Colour to INS Dronacharya for
(a) Submarine school, Sailer Training School
(b) INS Chilka
(c) INS Mandovi
(d) Nuclear Biological and Chemical Defence
(e) None of the above

145. Name the unclaimed deposits portal released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
(a) UDGAM portal
(b) RUPIYA
(c) JANM
(d) UDAY
(e) ANTARDRISHTI

146. The NW-1 Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river connects between which of the following states?
(a) MP, Rajasthan, UP, Bihar
(b) Punjab, Sikkim, Assam, West Bengal
(c) Bihar, Punjab, MP, UP
(d) UP, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal
(e) None of the above

147. Which of the following banks was authorised to issue Electoral Bonds?
(a) ICICI Bank
(b) Corporation Bank
(c) State Bank of India
(d) HDFC Bank
(e) Axis Bank

148. Cheque truncation systems are located at?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Lucknow
(c) Delhi
(d) Kolkata
(e) None of the above

149. Where is the Headquarters of the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) located?
(a) Basel, Switzerland
(b) Algeria, Algiers
(c) Zimbabwe, Harare
(d) Comoros, Moroni
(e) None of the above

149. Where is the Headquarters of the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) located?
(a) Basel, Switzerland
(b) Algeria, Algiers
(c) Zimbabwe, Harare
(d) Comoros, Moroni
(e) None of the above

150. Star (*) symbol on the number panel of the bank notes are-
(a) Hidden code related to RBI
(b) An identifier that is a replaced/reprinted banknote
(c) Fresh banknotes issued by the RBI
(d) Information about RBI
(e) None of the above

151. J. Robert Oppenheimer is the father of the
(a) gasoline bombs
(b) blast bombs
(c) fission bomb
(d) Atom Bomb
(e) None of the above

152. Where is the Headquarter of Second Schedule of the RBI Act, 1934, NongHyup Bank is located?
(a) Russia
(b) South Korea
(c) Japan
(d) China
(e) None of the above

153. What is the currency of the United Arab Emirates?
(a) Euro
(b) United Arab Emirates dirham (AED)
(c) Liberian Dollar
(d) CFA franc
(e) None of the above

154. The Indian national flag is by law required to be made of:
(a) Silk
(b) Cotton
(c) Muslin
(d) Khadi
(e) None of the above

155. Which state tops the NITI Aayog’s Export Preparedness Index 2022 for States/UTs?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Varanasi
(c) New Delhi
(d) Tamil Nadu
(e) None of the above

156. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health Organization
(e) None of the above

157. The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) has been created under:
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) NABARD
(c) Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
(e) SEBI

158. Spices Board India, under which of the following ministries, and UNDP India’s Accelerator Lab have signed an MoU with the aim to build a blockchain-based traceability interface for Indian spices?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(d) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare
(e) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

159. Choose the correct option regarding the FAME Scheme:
(a) To promote import of electric and hybrid vehicle technology.
(b) FAME stands for Fusion Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicle.
(c) FAME India is not a part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan.
(d) The Fame scheme was announced in 2019 with an outlay of 10,000 crores.
(e) All of the above.

160. Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare launched a new campaign for banks under Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) titled…
(a) BHARAT
(b) SAKSHAM
(c) SAMRIDDHI
(d) GAURAV

161. Mana Village Women use pen and brush for which kind of writing?
(a) Shorthand
(b) ‘Bhojpatra calligraphy’
(c) Penmanship
(d) Script
(e) None of the above

162. Which of the following Indian Premier League (IPL) teams is successful in both franchise brands?
(a) Delhi Daredevils
(b) Chennai Super Kings
(c) Kings XI Punjab
(d) Rajasthan Royals
(e) None of the above

163. Which company has the largest number of white label ATMs in India?
(a) Vakrangee Limited
(b) Indezeon
(c) Hitachi Payment Services Pvt. Ltd.
(d) Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited
(e) None of the above

164. Which of the following Banks does not issue the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate?
(a) Bank of Baroda
(b) Bandhan Bank
(c) Canara Bank
(d) Bank of India
(e) Union Bank of India

165. Triumph motorcycles will manufacture Speed 400 in India in collaboration with which company?
(a) Hero MotoCorp
(b) TVS Motor Company
(c) Bajaj Auto Ltd
(d) India Yamaha Motors
(e) None of the above

166. In 2023, Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan launched the Mobile App ‘ULLAS’ for
(a) Financial literacy
(b) Legal
(c) Vocational
(d) Digital literacy
(e) Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society

167. How many digits are there in a Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN)?
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 16
(e) 9

168. The risk coverage under Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is for partial disability:
(a) 1 lakh
(b) 2 lakh
(c) 3 lakh
(d) 4 lakh
(e) 5 lakh

169. Digital India Land Record Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) was launched by the President of India under which Program?
(a) NLRMP
(b) NGDRS
(c) CLR
(d) PPP
(e) None of the above

170. Which of the following denominations of coins to commemorate G20?
(a) ₹10 and ₹50
(b) ₹100 and ₹75
(c) ₹1 and ₹5
(d) ₹20 and ₹10
(e) ₹1000 and ₹500

171. THREADS was launched by:
(a) MetaBay.com
(b) Meta
(c) ViralVerse.com
(d) MetaXpert.com
(e) None of the above

172. Indian Railways plan to become a Net Zero Carbon Emitter by _______.
(a) 2030
(b) 2027
(c) 2032
(d) 2025
(e) 2026

173. The Union Cabinet has increased the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane to per quintal for 2023-24.
(a) ₹315
(b) ₹415
(c) ₹215
(d) ₹390
(e) ₹489

174. T+3 timeline fixed by which organization?
(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(b) National Securities Clearing Corporation Ltd (NSCCL)
(c) Indian Clearing Corporation Ltd (ICCL)
(d) National Stock Exchange (NSE)
(e) None of the above

175. Rajkot Greenfield airport comes under the scheme:
(a) PM Gati Shakti Project
(b) Bharatmala
(c) Sagarmala
(d) UDAAN
(e) None of the above

176. Number of credit information companies (CIC) operating in India:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

177. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has committed to enable:
(a) ‘Insurance for Everyone’ – 2047
(b) PM Matsya Sampada Yojana
(c) PM SVANidhi
(d) ‘Rooftop Solar Scheme’
(e) None of the above

178. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched the PSLV-C56/DS-SAR Mission, Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C56) placed all 7 satellites from Singapore into a circular Near Orbit (NEO):
(a) Equatorial
(b) Geostationary orbit (GEO)
(c) Polar orbit and Sun-synchronous orbit (SSO)
(d) Lagrange points (L-points)
(e) None of the above

179. Which organization has asked banks to display its logo?
(a) City Co-Operative Bank Ltd., Maharashtra.
(b) Hindu Cooperative Bank Limited, Pathankot, Punjab.
(c) Kapol Co-Operative Bank Ltd., Maharashtra.
(d) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation.
(e) None of the above

180. How many tiers in urban cooperative banks?
(a) 3 tiers
(b) 5 tiers
(c) 4 tiers
(d) 7 tiers
(e) 6 tiers

181. ICAO is a specialised agency of:
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) United Nations Development Group
(c) United Nations
(d) European Union
(e) None of the above

182. Total no. of Debts Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRAT’s):
(a) 35
(b) 39
(c) 36
(d) 33
(e) 38

183. Which Union Ministry is associated with the Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill, 2023?
(a) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
(b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Tourism
(e) None of the above

184. With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements:
I. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government.
II. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account.
III. They are not allowed to open savings bank accounts and are not members of the clearing houses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) Both II and III
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
(e) III only

185. As of 2023, banks from how many countries were permitted by the Reserve Bank of India to trade in rupees?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 21
(e) None of the above

186. Which institution released the ‘Spring 2023 Economic Forecast’?
(a) World Bank
(b) European Commission
(c) WEF
(d) IMF
(e) None of the above

187. Indian companies have been allowed to list on foreign exchanges through which institution?
(a) SEBI
(b) IFSC
(c) RBI
(d) NSE
(e) None of the above

188. RBI has selected which companies to use AI and ML to improve regulatory supervision?
(a) McKinsey and Accenture
(b) McKinsey and IBM
(c) Deloitte and Accenture
(d) Deloitte and IBM
(e) None of the above

189. India has settled its first-ever crude oil payment to which country in local currency?
(a) UAE
(b) Russia
(c) Iran
(d) Malaysia
(e) None of the above

190. ‘Governor of the Year’ Award for 2023 was conferred recently to the Governor of which country?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) India
(c) Bangladesh
(d) United Kingdom
(e) None of the above