IBPS Clerk 2022 - Mains Question Paper

REASONING & COMPUTER APTITUDE

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1–4): Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Seven persons attend the interview in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday, and they like different items: watch, Laptop, shoes, clothes, Mobile, Bike, and Car, but not necessarily in the same order.

Three persons attend the interview between C and the one who likes Car. Only two persons attend the interview after the one who likes Car. C attends the interview before the one who likes Car. Only one person attends the interview between B and the one who likes shoes. The one who likes watch attends the interview immediately before the one who likes shoes. F does not like shoes. The one who likes Mobile attends the interview immediately before C. As many persons attend the interview before F as after B. G attends the interview immediately after the one who likes Bike. B and G do not attend the interview consecutively. E attends the interview immediately after D. F does not like Laptop. A is one of the persons.

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the above arrangement. Find which of the following one does not belong to the group?
(a) G–Clothes
(b) C–Laptop
(c) B–Shoes
(d) F–Watch
(e) D–Bike

2. Who among the following person attends the interview immediately after E?
(a) G
(b) The one who bought Car
(c) The one who bought Mobile
(d) A
(e) F

3. If A is related to Mobile, C is related to shoes, in the same way, E is related to which of the following items?
(a) Car
(b) Laptop
(c) Clothes
(d) Bike
(e) Shoes

4. How many persons attend the interview after the one who bought Laptop?
(a) No one
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) None of the above

Directions (Qs. 5-8): Read the given information and answer the following question.

In a hexagon arrangement, at each corner a circle is placed which is denoted by two letter and two numbers. Below are given some of the conditions:

If the number is a perfect square, then only the number is reduced by 1.
If there is at least one vowel, then change it to the succeeding alphabet.
If both digits are odd, then increase those digits by 2.
If any one of the consonants is greater than M in alphabetical order, then change it to the previous alphabet.

Output:

	Input	Output
Circle 1	16, 25	15, 24
Circle 2	r, o	q, p
Circle 3	1, 2	1, 2
Circle 4	g, k	g, k
Circle 5	a, t	b, s
Circle 6	1, 1	3, 3

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find the steps required to rearrange the given input and answer the questions based on it.

Input:

Circle	Input
Circle 1	r, p
Circle 2	e, s
Circle 3	5, 5
Circle 4	t, x
Circle 5	d, g
Circle 6	2, 3

5. How many letters are there between the first letter of the output of Circle 1 and the second letter of the output of Circle 5?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
(e) None of the above

6. What is the output of Circle 4?
(a) t,r
(b) s,x
(c) t,x
(d) u,y
(e) s,w

7. What is the sum of the first number of the output of Circle 3 and the second number of the output of Circle 6?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 11
(d) 9
(e) 10

8. What is the sum of the product of the numbers of the output of Circle 3 and the product of the numbers of the output of Circle 6?
(a) 35
(b) 45
(c) 55
(d) 65
(e) None of the above

DIRECTION (Q. 9): In the given word “ORGANIZED” replace the consonants with the succeeding letter as per the English alphabet series and the vowels with their preceding letter as per the English alphabet series.

9. Then arrange the letter in reverse alphabetical order from right to left. Which of the following letter is third from the left end after arrangement?
(a) D
(b) H
(c) I
(d) N
(e) S

10. In the question below are given three statements followed by conclusions given in the options. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions definitely follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement:

Some Books are Pens
No Pen is Copy
Only a few copies are paper

Conclusion:
I. Some copies are not paper
II. All pens are paper is a possibility
III. Some Books are not Paper

(a) Only III follows
(b) Both I and II follows
(c) Both I and III follows
(d) Either I or II and III follows
(e) All I, II, III follows

DIRECTION (Q. 11): In the question below are given three statements followed by conclusions given in the options. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions definitely does not follow (or is not a possibility of occurrence) from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statement:

Some bats are locks
Only a few locks are watches
All watch is key

Conclusion:
I. All key can be locks
II. Some watches are not locks
III. All watches are bats is a possibility

(a) Only II
(b) Both I and II
(c) Both I and III
(d) Either I or II and III
(e) All I, II, III

DIRECTION (Q. 12): In the question below are given three statements followed by conclusions given in the options. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions definitely follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

12. Statement:

Only a few cow are cat
All cat is dog
No dog is rat

Conclusion:
I. Some rats are cow
II. No rat is cow
III. All dog are cow is a possibility

(a) Only III follows
(b) Both I and III follows
(c) Both I and III follows
(d) Either I or II and III follows
(e) All I, II, III follows

DIRECTION (Q. 13): The question given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give the answer.

13. There are six family members A, B, C, D, E, and F in a family. How is F related to E?

Statement I: A is the father of F, B is the grandson of C. D is the wife of E.
Statement II: B is the son of D. D is the daughter of C. F is the sibling of C.

(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(d) If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

DIRECTION (Q. 14): The question given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give the answer.

14. Seven persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S attend the seminar in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday.
In which of the following days does P attend the seminar?

Statement I:
M attended the seminar after three persons. Two persons have attended the seminar in between M and Q. R attends the seminar just after Q. N attends the seminar on Saturday.

Statement II:
O attends the seminar just after M. Only one person attends the seminar between O and S, and N attends the seminar on an adjacent day.

(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(d) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

DIRECTION (Q. 15): The question given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

Six persons Seema, Rani, Bindu, Mary, Reeta, and Anjali are sitting in a circular table facing inside the table.
Who among the following sits to the immediate left of Seema?

15.
Statement I: Reeta sits second to the left of Mary. Bindu sits third to the right of Mary. Only one person sits between Bindu and Rani.
Statement II: Anjali sits second to the right of Mary. Two persons sit between Anjali and Rani. Bindu sits to the immediate left of Reeta.

(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(d) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

DIRECTION (Q. 16): The question given below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give an answer.

Six friends Deepa, Prakash, Pankaj, Priti, Mukesh, and Lalit are of different weights.
Whose weight is the lightest?

16.
Statement I: Deepa is heavier than Pankaj. Pankaj is heavier than both Mukesh and Lalit.
Statement II: Prakash is heavier than Priti, who is heavier than Mukesh. Mukesh is not the lightest person.

(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statements I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

DIRECTION (Qs. 17 – 18): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

A + B – A is the brother of B
A % B – A is the mother of B
A ! B – A is the father of B
A * B – A is the sister of B
A # B – A is the daughter of B
A @ B – A is the son of B
A ~ B – A is elder than B
$ – in-law
© – grand

Example:
If A %$ B → A is the mother-in-law of B, A *$ B → A is sister-in-law of B.
If A ©% B → A is Grand Mother of B, A © # B → A is Granddaughter of B.

S # T © % U; V + $ W; X + $ Y! $ Z % U # W; T * X ~ Y; V @ $ Y; Y ~ T

17. If the age of X is 49 and the age of T is 46 then what may be the age of Y?
(a) 42
(b) 44
(c) 46
(d) 48
(e) 50

18. Which of the following pair is an incorrect relation?
(a) S * $ Z
(b) W + $ V
(c) W @ Y
(d) S * Y
(e) U # Z

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19-21): In the following questions, the symbols @, +, ©, $ and # are used with the following meaning:

‘X @ Y’ means ‘X is neither greater than nor equal to Y,
‘X + Y’ means ‘X is not smaller than Y,
‘X © Y’ means ‘X is not greater than Y,
‘X $ Y’ means ‘X is neither smaller than nor greater than Y,
‘X $ Y’ means ‘X is neither smaller than nor equal to Y.’

19. Statements:
2 $ 8 + 6 © 7 # 5; 6 @ 5 + 4; 5 + 3 © 1

Conclusions:
I. 8 $ 4
II. 1 @ 7
III. 6 @ 2

(a) Only conclusions I and III follow
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Only conclusion II and III follow
(d) Only conclusion I follows
(e) None follow

20. Statements:
F © T + M $ J; Q # O @ M + L; O + P # C

Conclusion:
I. T # P
II. Q # T
III. C @ Q

(a) Only conclusions I and III follow
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Only conclusion II and III follow
(d) Only conclusion I follows
(e) None follow

21. Statements:
Q # S @ U + D; J $ H © U; Q + I

Conclusion:
I. U # J
II. U @ I
III. Q @ U

(a) Only conclusion I and III follow
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Only conclusion II and III follow
(d) Only conclusion I follows
(e) None follow

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22–25): Read the given information and answer the following questions:

In the given matrix, rows are numbered from top to bottom, i.e., I, II, III, and IV, and columns are numbered left to right, i.e., I, II, III, and IV. Some of the places are filled with respective days in the matrix, and some are missing. To find the respective day of the missing places on the matrix, fill it in a way such that no same day is repeated in a row nor in a column.

There are four days i.e., Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday, and a specific numerical value is assigned to each place in the matrix which is the value associated with each day and the value assigned to these days is 2, 3, 4, and 5, respectively.
Now resultant of rows and columns are written in a specific manner. For each row, write associated numerical value from left to right in that row and for a column write respective numerical value from bottom to top.

Tuesday
		Monday
	Sunday
Wednesday		Sunday

22. In which of the following pairs Tuesday and Monday are consecutive?
(a) Row I, Row III
(b) Row II, Row III
(c) Row II, Row IV
(d) Row I, Row II
(e) None of these

23. Which of the following resultant is divisible by 4?
(a) Row II
(b) Row III
(c) Row IV
(d) Column I
(e) Column II

24. What is the difference of resultant of Row IV and Column IV?
(a) 1881
(b) 1672
(c) 2000
(d) 2032
(e) 1754

25. If the resultant of a row is even, then add 222 to get the new resultant, and if the resultant of a column is odd, then subtract 111 to get the new resultant. After rearrangement, which of the following is true?
I. Resultant of Row I is less than resultant of Column III
II. A difference of resultant than Row II and Column I is odd
III. Sum of the digits of resultant of Row IV is even

(a) Only II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only II
(d) Only III
(e) All of the above

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26–30): Read the given information and answer the following questions:

21 persons work in a bank at different posts. The posts are in decreasing order, i.e., Chairman, GM, Manager, AM, PO, and Clerk. It is known that in any post, the number of persons posted were one more than the number of persons posted in the immediate senior post. For example: If 4 persons work as a PO, then 5 persons work as a Clerk.

D works as a Manager and is just senior to G. B and C work at the same post and were senior to D. M, N, and L work at the same post and were junior to G. H is just junior to E but just senior to L. Q, R, and S work at the same post but not with H. K is junior to G but senior to P. I and J work at the same post but do not work as a Clerk. A does not work along with T and Q. F is senior to O and junior to A. T and U work at the same place.

26. J works at which post?
(a) AM
(b) Clerk
(c) GM
(d) PO
(e) Manager

27. Which of the following is at the same post with B?
(a) D
(b) E
(c) G
(d) H
(e) C

28. How many persons were at the same post with S (excluding S)?
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) 4

29. Who among the following works as Manager?
(a) G
(b) F
(c) D
(d) More than one option
(e) None of these

30. How many persons are junior to A?
(a) 20
(b) 6
(c) 18
(d) 15
(e) 11

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 31–34): Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Eight persons M to T live in a four-storey building. The ground floor is numbered 1. Each floor consists of two flats, i.e., Flat X and Flat Y. Flat X is to the west of Flat Y. Only one person lives in each flat. Each of them likes different colours, i.e., Grey, Blue, Red, Yellow, White, Purple, Black, and Green, not necessarily in the same order. Floor 2 of Flat X is just above Floor 1 of Flat X, and so on.

O lives on the second floor and lives just below the person who likes Blue.
One floor is between the person who likes Red and Grey, and both of them live in Flat X.
The person who likes Purple and N live on the same floor but in different flats.
One floor is between the person who likes Green and N.
The number of floors above Q is the same as the number of floors below P, who lives below Q in a different flat.
The person who likes Yellow lives west of T.
No person lives west of the person who likes Blue and O.
The person who likes White lives two floors above S.
M does not like Red.
The person who likes Green lives on an odd-numbered floor.
S lives just below.

31. How many floors are between N and T?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of the above

32. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) T likes Black
(b) S lives on the 3rd floor
(c) Q lives just above R
(d) O lives on the 1st floor
(e) None of these

33. R likes which colour?
(a) White
(b) Blue
(c) Black
(d) Red
(e) Purple

34. Who likes Grey?
(a) The one who lives just above N
(b) The one who lives just below S
(c) O
(d) Q
(e) P

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 35–36): Read the given information and answer the following questions:

In a company ABC, during the training program, a few organization sessions are organized in a day for different departments, i.e., Digital, Editorial, Marketing. Two Digital, Two Editorial, and one Marketing orientation session with each session being of 1 hour. Also, for the new joinee, a two-hour departmental training is organized on this day. These sessions are organised from 10 am to 7 pm. Two breaks are there between these sessions, 1 pm to 2 pm snacks and 5pm to 6 pm Tea. None of the same department orientation are consecutive including breaks(for example: If Digital orientation is at 12 pm slot then the other Digital orientation can’t be at 2 pm nor 11 pm slot). None of the Digital orientation is after tea. Xena, who was the invigilator of these orientation session, left the departmental training session at 4:30 pm due to some personal reason for few minutes. First slot is not of Digital. Last slot is of Editorial orientation. Marketing session is just before one of the breaks.

35. Which sessions are between the two breaks?
(a) Digital and Marketing
(b) Marketing and Departmental training
(c) Editorial and Digital
(d) Editorial and Departmental training
(e) Digital and Departmental training

36. How many sessions are there between the two Editorial sessions excluding breaks?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 5
(e) 4

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 37–40): Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Nine persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and J were born in different years on the same date in the month of June. Calculation is done from the base year of 2022. No person is younger than 5 years nor older than 75 years. Note: If it’s given age of “X” is equal to the last two digits of the birth year of “Y,” then it can be the last digits or the reverse of the last two digits.

A was born in the year 1985. Age difference between E and F is 12 years. B’s age is equal to the last two digits of the birth year of A. C’s age is equal to the two last digits of the birth year of B. D’s age is equal to the last two digits of the birth year of C. E’s age is equal to the last two digits of the birth year of D. G’s age is the sum of the digits of the birth year of F. J is 6 years younger than G. H is 9 years younger than G.

37. Find the odd one out.
(a) G
(b) F
(c) H
(d) E
(e) A

38. Who is the eldest person among them?
(a) D
(b) C
(c) E
(d) B
(e) A

39. E was born in which year?
(a) 1979
(b) 1967
(c) 1962
(d) 1960
(e) 1953

40. What is the difference of age between youngest and 3rd eldest?
(a) 18
(b) 28
(c) 38
(d) 48
(e) 58

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 41–44): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A number and word arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers and words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement:

Input: 4269 5497 8646 9354 2579 1658

Step I: 1658 2579 4269 5497 8646 9354
Step II: 1568 2579 2469 4579 4668 3459
Step III: 614 716 615 916 1014 714
Step IV: 24 42 30 54 0 28
Step V: 54 42 30 28 24 0

Step V is the last step.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find the steps required to rearrange the given input and answer the questions based on it.

Input: 3846 9231 7283 4731 8152 3285

41. What is the sum of the digits of last three numbers in step V?
(a) 26
(b) 28
(c) 14
(d) 19
(e) None of these

42. What is the addition of the largest number and the smallest number in step IV?
(a) 42
(b) 32
(c) 82
(d) 52
(e) 72

43. What is the product of the second digit of the second number from the left and the third digit of the third number from the right end in step III?
(a) 0
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 2
(e) 9

44. What is the difference between the second largest number in step I and the second smallest number in step II?
(a) 4376
(b) 5375
(c) 3755
(d) 7355
(e) 6894

DIRECTION (Q. 45): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:

Statement:
“Sudden decline in GST tax collection pulled down overall rise in gross direct tax mobilization in the first half of the current year, ruling out any pickup in growth in the first quarter of the year, indicating that the government will find it difficult to meet its tax target for this year.”

Inferences:
I. GST tax collection rise only in the first quarter of the current year.
II. Industrial production and development slowed down in the first half of the year.
III. The government has achieved the target of corporate as well as GST tax collection in comparison to the previous year.
IV. Poor tax collection in the GST tax collection pulled down the economy of our country.
V. The government is likely to face difficulties in achieving the target of collection of GST tax due to the slowdown in production and the government has forecast a growth in GST tax.

45. Which of the inferences numbered (I), (II), (III), (IV), and (V) can be concluded from the fact/information given in the statement?
(a) Only III and IV
(b) Only IV
(c) Only III
(d) Only II and V
(e) Only II

DIRECTION (Q. 46): In the question below is a statement followed by some conclusions. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statement:
Computers can finish the task with the help of coding languages which are comprehensible for human beings but the computer needs the compiler software to read those commands.

What are the conclusions that will be derived from the above passage?
(a) Computers cannot do the tasks without the help of the compiler software.
(b) Computer systems use certain conversion methods to read the codes.
(c) Both options (b) and (a) follow.
(d) Computers can work by themselves to complete a task.
(e) Humans need to train the computers to do a certain task by using the specific commands.

DIRECTION (Q. 47): Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the question that follows:

Statement:
Players like Amazon and Flipkart as well as industry watchers noted that the need for social distancing and prioritizing safety during the pandemic led to millions of people turning to e-commerce platforms this past year, not only in metros but also in tier III regions and beyond.

Inferences:
I. The pandemic brought about a “structural shift” in shopping behavior with more and more customers and businesses relying on e-commerce.
II. The Indian e-commerce market has been one of the biggest beneficiaries of the pandemic.
III. The new normal of working and learning from home also fueled demand for consumer electronic products.

47.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) Only III follows
(e) Only I and either II or III follows

DIRECTION (Q. 48): In the question, the statement is given followed by some inferences. You must consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You must decide which of the given inference, if any, is a strong argument.

48. Statement: Dinesh likes to write from a very young age especially, He likes to write poetries. He also maintains a journal for his poetries which He plans to publish as an anthology.

What are the facts that can be inferred from the above passage?
(a) Dinesh always likes to write poetry
(b) Dinesh has written many poems
(c) Dinesh has good poetic skills
(d) Dinesh is planning to publish an anthology
(e) Dinesh had an inborn talent to write poetry

DIRECTION (49): Read the given statement and with that information answer the following question carefully:

After GST and demonetization, rising interest rates are set to hurt SMEs. Interest rates for loans against property (LAP) extended to small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs) are set to rise in the coming months of 2018.
‘Rising interest rates, in addition to the muted operating environment for small businesses in India, will lead to an increase in delinquencies on LAP extended to SMEs’. The introduction of the goods and services tax(GST) in July 2017 and the government’s demonetization policy have placed stress on the SME sector. Which rising interest rates will exacerbate.

49. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the statement above?
(a) Rising interest rates will limit refinancing options and increase repayment amounts, increasing risks for asset-backed securities (ABS) backed by LAP to SMEs.
(b) None can be inferred.
(c) But losses will be limited because these loans are secured and have relatively low loan-to-value ratios.
(d) In addition to rising delinquencies over the last few years would force lenders to be more cautious while underwriting loans. This would limit refinancing options, adversely affecting existing borrowers.
(e) The ABS (asset-backed securities) backed by LAP extended to SMEs have non-amortizing cash reserves, substantial excess spread, and the possibility to extend the life of the loans and hence the life of the transactions.

DIRECTION (Q. 50): Read the passage given below carefully and answer the given question.

Statement: An oil painting by the late Chinese-French artist Zao Wou Ki became the most expensive oil painting ever sold at auction by an Asian artist. The painting fetched $65 million in the auction at Sotheby’s Hong Kong.

50. Which of the following does not support the statement?
I. The oil painting by the late Chinese-French artist became the most expensive oil painting ever sold at auction.
II. The auction at Sotheby’s Hong Kong on the painting fetched $65 million, which is the highest till date for any artist.
III. Zao Wou-Ki was an Asian artist to ever sell the most expensive oil painting.

(a) Only II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only I
(d) Only II
(e) All of the above

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

51. The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of candidates present in different sections of the 10th class of a school on Sunday.

The percentage distribution of candidates present:

Note:

Difference between the number of candidates present in section ‘1’ and section ‘2’ is 4.
In each of the sections ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, and ‘5’, the total number of candidates (Present + Absent) is less than 51.
No section has full attendance.

If absent candidates in section ‘1’ is 40% more than the present candidates and the ratio of absent candidates (Boys + Girls) is 5 : 3, then find the absent girl candidates in section ‘1’ is what percentage of the total present candidates in section 3?
(a) 70%
(b) 80%
(c) 90%
(d) 100%
(e) 110%

52. If 10 candidates who were present in section ‘1’, shifted to section ‘3’, then what is the sum of the maximum and minimum possible total (present + absent) candidates in section ‘3’?
(a) 61
(b) 71
(c) 81
(d) 91
(e) 101

53. What is the difference between the maximum possible value of absent candidates in section ‘2’ and 3rd minimum possible value of absent candidates in section ‘5’?
(a) 6
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

54. If the value of absent candidates in section ‘3’ is greater than ‘7’ and the total number of candidates (present + absent) in section ‘3’ is a ‘square’ number, then what is the difference between the absent candidates in section ‘3’ and total present candidates in section ‘1’ and section ‘5’ together?
(a) 65
(b) 64
(c) 63
(d) 62
(e) 61

55. If it is given that the sum of maximum and minimum possible values of absent candidates in section ‘4’ is 4, then what is the maximum total number of candidates (Present + Absent) in section ‘4’?
(a) 49
(b) 50
(c) 51
(d) 52
(e) 53

56. A question is followed by 2 statements. Study the following statements carefully and state whether they are sufficient to answer the question.
A candidate appears in an examination where his marks in math is 20 marks more than what he got in English. Find his marks in Math?

Statement I: Average marks of English and Hindi is 71.5. The ratio of marks of Practical and Theory in English is 6 : 5 and in Hindi, it is 15 : 7.

Statement II: Ratio of marks obtained in the theory exam of English and Hindi is 1 : 2. The ratio of marks of English and Hindi is 5 : 8.

(a) Statement I alone is sufficient
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Neither of the statements is sufficient
(d) Both I and II together is sufficient
(e) Either I or II is sufficient

57. A train can cross a car which is running with speed 20 km/h in the same direction as that of the train in 36 seconds while the train can cross a platform of length two times of the length of train in 18 seconds, then what is the length of the platform?

(a) 150m
(b) 120m
(c) 40m
(d) 80m
(e) None of these

58. Direction: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

The line graph given below shows the total number of members (Males + Females) in four fitness clubs for the years 2019 and 2023.

The total number of (Males + Females) in clubs

If in club N, the percentage increase of the club members from 2019 to 2021 is x%, from 2021 to 2022 is 20%, and from 2022 to 2023 is 25%, then find the value of ‘x’? (approximately)
(a) 85.5%
(b) 96.5%
(c) 67.5%
(d) 79.5%
(e) 90.5%

59. If in club N, an equal number of members joined in 2020, 2021, and 2022 and from 2019 and 2023 only 5 people left the club, then find the number of people who joined in 2020. (Assume no other club member left or joined in any given year other than the given data)
(a) 31
(b) 32
(c) 33
(d) 34
(e) 35

60. If the total number of male club members in club O and club M together in 2019 is 100 and in 2019, the total number of male members in club M was 75% of the total club members in club ‘N’ in 2019, then find the total number of female club members in club O in 2019 is what percent of the total number of club members in club O in 2023?
(a) 71.25%
(b) 72.50%
(c) 73.75%
(d) 74.25%
(e) 75.75%

61. If in 2023, the ratio of the number of female to male club members in club ‘O’ is 9:7 respectively and only in the year 2022 few members left the club in which the number of females was 15%, then how many female members were there initially in gym ‘O’ in 2019?
(a) 55
(b) 53
(c) 54
(d) 52
(e) 51

62. In 2020 in club P, the percentage increase of total members from the previous year is 25% in which males are 37.5% of the new club members who joined and the new male members are 20% more than the number of male members present in the previous year. In 2022, 20 female members joined the club. Find the ratio of the number of female members initially in 2019 and the number of female members in 2023 (Assume no other member joined or left in any year other than the given data).
(a) 61 : 79
(b) 73 : 79
(c) 71 : 79
(d) 59 : 79
(e) 67 : 79

63. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
There are four companies P, Q, R, and S. Data given below shows the number of products sold and unsold by these shopkeepers.
The total number of products manufactured by ‘P’ is 120, and the ratio of sold and unsold products of company Q is 3 : 1. The total number of products manufactured by company ‘Q’ and ‘S’ is 260, and the difference between the number of unsold and sold products by ‘R’ is 90. The total number of products manufactured by ‘R’ is 150, which is 12 less than that of products sold by ‘S’. The difference between the products unsold by ‘Q’ and ‘S’ is 2. The number of products sold by P is x% as that of ‘Q’.

Note: The number of products sold by each company is more than that of products unsold.
If the total number of products sold by all companies together is 432, then find the number of unsold products by company ‘S’ is how much percent more or less than that of ‘P’?
(a) 100%
(b) 80%
(c) 60%
(d) 40%
(e) 20%

64. If the number of products sold by company ‘P’ is 140% more than the products unsold by company R, then find the value of ‘x’?
(a) 100%
(b) 110%
(c) 120%
(d) 130%
(e) 140%

65. If the number of products unsold by ‘P’ is 30, and the number of products manufactured by ‘T’ is thrice that of company ‘S’, then find the number of unsold products of company ‘T’, if the sold products of company ‘T’ is 2x.
(a) 120
(b) 100
(c) 80
(d) 60
(e) 40

66. If the difference between the number of products sold by ‘R’ and the total products manufactured by ‘S’ is ‘Y’ and the total number of products manufactured by ‘Q’ is ‘Z’, then ‘Y’ is how much percent more or less than that of ‘Z’?
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 30%
(e) 35%

67. Consider the following number series and answer the question based on this.
2, 2, 4, 11, x, p
z + 5 = x – 26
Find the value of p?

(a) 387
(b) 388
(c) 389
(d) 400
(e) 401

68. Which of the following is true about the value of z?
(a) z is an even number
(b) z is a prime number
(c) z is a perfect square number
(d) z is greater than 90.
(e) Sum of digits of z is more than 20.

69.
Series I: 12, x, 35, 51, 70
Series II: 35, x, 73, 293, 2345
Series III: 7, 14, x, 34, 47, 62
The value of x is 23.

In which of the following series ‘x’ is not satisfied properly?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Only I and II
(e) Only II and III

70. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
The table given below shows the data of the total funds of 4 different companies and funds invested by each company to 3 different Projects.

Company	Total fund (Rs.)	% invested to Project ‘x’	% donated to Project ‘y’	% donated to Project ‘z’
A	Rs. 12000	32%	—	24%
B	—	64%	16%	Rs. 1905
C	—	33%	—	27%
D	Rs. 13500	—	52%	—

Note:

Sum of the percentage distribution in each company is 100.
Ratio between the total funds of company ‘A’ to company ‘C’ is 4 : 5 respectively.
Some of the values are missing.

70. If the fund invested to project ‘y’ by company ‘A’ was distributed to an orphan child and elder person in 9 : 11 respectively, then find the difference between the fund invested to the elder person of project ‘y’ and the total fund of company ‘B’.
(a) Rs. 7115
(b) Rs. 7215
(c) Rs. 7315
(d) Rs. 7415
(e) Rs. 7515

71. If the total fund of company ‘B’ is part of their ‘actual plan’ and it is only 40% of their actual fund, then the total fund invested to project ‘x’ and project ‘y’ by company ‘B’ is what percent of their actual fund?
(a) 30%
(b) 31%
(c) 32%
(d) 33%
(e) 34%

72. If 20% of the fund invested to project ‘Y’ by the company ‘C’ was utilized in ‘women’s development’ and the rest was for ‘rural development’, then find the ratio between the fund utilized in women’s development by project ‘Y’ and fund invested by company ‘D’ to project ‘Y’?
(a) 20 : 101
(b) 20 : 103
(c) 20 : 107
(d) 20 : 111
(e) 20 : 117

73. If the fund invested by company ‘D’ in project ‘X’ and project ‘Z’ was in the ratio of 4 : 5, then find the fund invested to project ‘Z’ was what percent of the total fund of company ‘D’?
(a) 13.33%
(b) 16.66%
(c) 26.66%
(d) 33.33%
(e) 42.22%

74. If another company E has a fund that was 30% more than that of company ‘C’ and company ‘E’ invested 30%, 25% and 45% to project ‘X’, project ‘Y’, and project ‘Z’ respectively, then find the sum of the fund invested to project ‘Z’ by company ‘E’ and fund invested to project ‘X’ by company ‘B’?
(a) Rs. 11871
(b) Rs. 12871
(c) Rs. 13871
(d) Rs. 14871
(e) Rs. 15871

75. Directions: In this question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and find out the correct option.

I. $x^2 – 7x + 12 = 0$

II. $ y^2 – 14y + 40 = 0$

(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x ≥ y
(d) x ≤ y
(e) x = y or no relationship could be established

76. In the given question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

$\text{I. } x^2 – 42x + 216 = 0$

$\text{II. } 2y^2 + 7y + 6 = 0$

(a) x > y
(b) y ≤ x
(c) y > x
(d) x < y
(e) Either x = y or the relation between x and y cannot be established

77. Direction: In the given question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. $x^2 – 9x + 14 = 0$

II. $y^2 + 10y + 21 = 0$

(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x ≥ y
(d) x ≤ y
(e) x = y or the relationship between x and y cannot be established

78. In the given question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. $x^2 – x – 30 = 0$

II. $y^2 + 2y – 24 = 0$

(a) x > y
(b) y ≤ x
(c) y > x
(d) x < y
(e) Either x = y or the relationship between x and y cannot be established

79. In the given question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. $ 2y^2 – 13y + 21 = 0$

II. $3x^2 – 16x + 21 = 0$

(a) y > x
(b) x < y
(c) x > y
(d) y ≤ x
(e) Either x = y or the relationship between x and y cannot be established

80. What approximate value should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
14.14 × 69.99 × 7.96 ÷ 27.98 = $x^2$ + 23.99
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 17
(e) 18

81. What approximate value should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
14.77% of 199.99 + 36.14% of 149.99 = x−7.99% of 999.98
(a) 144
(b) 154
(c) 164
(d) 174
(e) 184

82. What approximate value will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

$(7.96 \times 8.988) – (9.003 \times \sqrt{16.013}) = x – 7.789$

(a) 44
(b) 45
(c) 41
(d) 42
(e) 47

83. What approximate value should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

$(35.785 – 24.76) \times (19.89 – 14.99) = x + (44.87 – 16.98)$

(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 28
(e) 29

84. The question consists of two statements numbered “I” and “II” given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not and choose the correct option accordingly.

An alloy contains silver and gold in the ratio of 9 : 14 respectively. Find the original quantity of gold in the alloy?

Statement I: If 20% of the alloy is replaced with the same quantity of gold then the ratio of the silver to gold becomes 36 : 79.

Statement II: If 75 kg of gold is added to the alloy, then the ratio of silver to gold becomes 9 : 17.

(a) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

85. The question consists of two statements numbered “I” and “II” given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not and choose the correct option accordingly.

The ratio of the cost prices of articles ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ is 3 : 5 : 8. The percentage by which article ‘X’ article ‘Y’ and article ‘Z’ are marked up is 40%, 60%, and 80% respectively. Find the cost price of article ‘Z’?

Statement (I): The ratio of the selling prices of article ‘X’, article ‘Y’ and article ‘Z’ is 13 : 7 : 10

Statement (II): Total profit earned on the three articles is Rs. 120 less than the total discount given on the three articles together.

(a) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

DIRECTION (Q. 86): Given question contains a statement followed by two statements are numbered as Quantity I and Quantity II. On solving these statements, we get quantities I and II respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

86. If $a^3 = 8 $ and $b^4 = 16$

Quantity I: Value of b.
Quantity II: Value of a.

(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity II > Quantity I
(c) Quantity II ≥ Quantity I
(d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(e) Cannot be determined

87. A receives $\frac{1}{3}$ of the total profit and the remaining is divided between B and C in the ratio of 11:14. If the difference between the profit shares of C and A is Rs.300. What is B’s share?

(a) ₹2000
(b) ₹2200
(c) ₹2300
(d) ₹2400
(e) None of these

88. Deepak can do 2/3rd of work in 30 days. The efficiency of Rahul is 20% more than that of Deepak. Both Deepak and Rahul started working together and left the work after seven days. Puja completed the remaining work in 37 days. The efficiency of Puja is how much percent more/less than that of Deepak?

(a) 25% less
(b) 20% less
(c) 20% more
(d) 25% more
(e) None of these

89. A bag contains 7 red and 3 blue balls. Two balls are drawn randomly. Find the probability that one ball is red and other is blue.

(a) 21/45
(b) 23/45
(c) 29/45
(d) 19/45
(e) None of the above

90. Difference between compound interest and simple interest on Rs. 20,000 for 2 years at x% per annum is Rs. 450. Find the value of x.

(a) 15%
(b) 15 1/3%
(c) 16 2/3%
(d) 18%
(e) None of these

91. The total time taken by the boat to go ‘x’ km upstream and then return back to a certain distance is 5 hours. The ratio of the speed boat in still water to the speed of the stream is 4 : 1, respectively. If the upstream distance covered is 90 km less than the downstream distance covered and the boat can cover (3x + 60) km in still water in 6 hours, then find the value of ‘x’?

(a) 60 km
(b) 80 km
(c) 100 km
(d) 120 km
(e) 140 km

92. A person can cover a distance between A and B at a speed of 25 km/hr. On the return journey, he covers 200 km with 20 km/hr, and after that, he takes a different route on the return journey which increases his total distance by 45 km. If the speed of the car on the extended route is 40 km/hr. If it takes 120 min more while returning then find the distance between A and B.

(a) 215 km
(b) 250 km
(c) 275 km
(d) 295 km
(e) 315 km

93. The age of the mother 8 years ago was 4 times the age of her son at that time. The age of the mother after 4 years will be $\frac{16}{7}$ times the age of the son at the time. Find the ratio between the mother’s age after 7 years and the present age of the son.

(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 5 : 2
(e) 6 : 5

94. The volume of a cylinder is $4004 cm^3$ and the diameter of the cylinder is equal to the side of a square whose perimeter is 56 cm. Find the curved surface area of the cylinder.

(a) $1122 cm^2$
(b) $2233 cm^2$
(c) $1144 cm^2$
(d) $2244 cm^2$
(e) $3311 cm^2$

95. There are 6 consecutive odd numbers. If the product of the 1st and the 2nd number is 675, then find the average of all the numbers.

(a) 29
(b) 30
(c) 31
(d) 32
(e) 33

96. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls is 5 : 3 and the average age of the whole class is ‘x’ and the average age of girls is ‘x + 2’ then find the average age of boys in the class.

(a) x – 1.2
(b) x + 1.25
(c) x + 2
(d) x – 2
(e) x + 2.5

97. Profit earned on an article when it is sold for ₹ 624 is 20% more than the loss when it is sold for ₹ 360. If a person marked up the article by 25% on purchasing price and sold it after allowing two successive discounts of 10%. Find the selling price of the article.

(a) ₹ 534
(b) ₹ 486
(c) ₹ 537
(d) ₹ 538
(e) ₹ 539

98. Profit earned on selling a table for ₹ (X + 2400) is 250% more than the loss incurred on selling the table for ₹ (X + 1000). Had the table been sold for ₹ ‘X’, there would have been a loss of 70%. What is the cost price of the table?

(a) ₹1500
(b) ₹1600
(c) ₹1800
(d) ₹2000
(e) ₹2400

99. The question consists of two statements numbered “I” and “II” given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not and choose the correct option accordingly.

Find the time of the journey of Kush to reach school on time from his home given that the distance between his home and school is 250 km.

Statement I: If Kush travels with a speed of (x + 2.5) km/hr, he reaches the school from home on time.

Statement II: If Kush travels with a speed of (x – 2.5) km/hr, he will be late by 2.5 hours.

100. Yash spends 20% of his monthly salary on EMI. From the remaining, he spends 25% on the rent, 15% on food, 50% on groceries, and 10% on video blogging. If the difference between the amount spent on EMI and food is ₹480 then find the monthly salary of Yash.

(a) ₹5200
(b) ₹5300
(c) ₹5400
(d) ₹6000
(e) ₹5600

GENERAL ENGLISH

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 101–107): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

India’s diversity has inspired many writers to pen their perceptions of the country’s culture. These writings paint a complex and often conflicting picture of the culture of India. India is one of the most ethnically and religiously diverse countries in the world. The concept of “Indian culture” is a very complex and complicated matter. Indian citizens are divided into various ethnic, religious, caste, linguistic and regional groups, making the realities of “Indianness” extremely complicated. This is why the conception of Indian identity poses certain difficulties and presupposes a series of assumptions about what concisely the expression “Indian” means. However, despite this vast and heterogeneous composition, the creation of some sort of typical or shared Indian culture results from some inherent internal forces (such as a robust Constitution, universal adult franchise, flexible federal structure, secular educational policy, etc.) and from certain historical events (such as Indian Independence Movement, Partition, wars against Pakistan, etc.).

According to industry consultant Eugene M. Makar, for example, traditional Indian culture is defined by a relatively strict social hierarchy. He also mentions that from an early age, children are reminded of their roles and places in society. This is reinforced, Makar notes, by the way many believe gods and spirits have an integral and functional role in determining their life. Several differences such as religion divide the culture. Strict social taboos have governed many groups for thousands of years, claims Makar. In recent years, particularly in cities, some of these lines have blurred and sometimes even disappeared. He writes important family relations extend as far as 1 gotra, the mainly patrilinear lineage or clan assigned to a Hindu at birth. In rural areas & sometimes in urban areas as well, it is common that three or four generations of the family live under the same roof. The patriarch often resolves family issues.

Others have a different perception of Indian culture. According to an interview with C.K. Prahalad by Des Dearlove, author of many best-selling business books, modern India is a country of very diverse cultures with many languages, religions, and traditions. Children begin by coping and learning to accept and assimilate in this diversity. Prahalad—who was born in India and grew up there—claimed, in the interview, that Indians, like everyone else in the world, want to be treated as unique, as individuals, want to express themselves and seek innovation.

In another report, Nancy Lockwood of Society for Human Resource Management, the world’s largest human resources association with members in 140 countries, writes that in the past two decades or so, social change in India is in dramatic contrast to the expectations from traditional Indian culture. These changes have led to Indian families giving education opportunities to girls, accepting women working outside home, pursuing a career, and opening the possibility for women to attain managerial roles in corporate India. Lockwood claims that change is slow, yet the scale of cultural change can be sensed from the fact that of India’s 397 million workers, 124 million are now women. The issues in India with women empowerment are similar to those elsewhere in the world.

101. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about India and its Culture?
(a) India is one of the most ethnically and religiously diverse countries in the world.
(b) Indian citizens are divided into various ethnic, religious, caste, linguistic and regional groups.
(c) Traditional Indian culture is defined by a relatively strict social hierarchy.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) All of the Above

102. Which of the following statements is/are correct in context with the passage?
(I) Out of India’s 397 million workers, the number of women is almost none.
(II) In rural areas & sometimes in urban areas as well, it is common that even three or four members of the family are not ready to live under one roof.
(III) Modern India is a country of very diverse cultures with many languages, religions and traditions.

(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the Above

103. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the passage above?
(a) Family system in India
(b) Indian Revolutionaries
(c) India’s Religious Side
(d) Perceptions of Indian culture
(e) Indian values and Ethics

104. According to the passage, how have social changes affected women’s lives in Indian families?
(a) Women have been given education opportunities and have been allowed to work outside home.
(b) Women have been allowed to join Army and serve the nation.
(c) Women have been allowed to open health care centres for the poor population.
(d) Women have been given career opportunities to work inside their homes.
(e) All of the Above

105. Which of the following statements are incorrect in context with the passage?
(I) Nancy Lockwood states that social change in India is in dramatic contrast to the expectations from traditional Indian culture.
(II) The national language of India is Hindi however there are almost 22 official languages and 400 other languages are spoken daily in India in its various states and territories.
(III) Respect and reverence for elders is a key stone of Indian culture.

(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) None of the Above

106. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR to the word given in passage.
ASSIMILATE
(a) Disparity
(b) Distort
(c) Comprehend
(d) Obscure
(e) Misperceive

107. Choose the word which is most opposite to the following word given in bold in the passage.
INTEGRAL
(a) Essential
(b) Intense
(c) Dispensable
(d) Inbred
(e) Significant

DIRECTIONS (108–113): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

A well-known stock market sell signal is a company splurging on flashy new headquarters. It might then be time to go short the City of London. From the Shard, the tallest building in the European Union, the view is of a crowded skyline of fellow concept skyscrapers. There is the Gherkin, the Cheese grater, the Walkie Talkie and, rising in their midst, 22 Bishopsgate, which will be the Square Mile’s tallest and most capacious tower. The building frenzy is even accelerating. Londoners are waiting to hear if the 1,000-foot Tulip—with a design that many contend is more phallic than floral—will be approved.

None of this suggests a financial centre bracing for Britain’s departure from the European Union. But as soon as Theresa May, the prime minister, made leaving the single market a “red line” after the Brexit referendum in 2016, it seemed likely that the City would be sundered from its biggest foreign market. Regulators on both sides of the Channel scrambled to ensure business continuity and financial stability. British firms were asked to draw up contingency plans, including opening hubs in the EU27. For much of the City, Brexit happened sometime last year.

According to New Financial, a think tank in London, 291 big financial firms have moved some activities or people to the EU27 or opened legal entities there. Many contingency plans were triggered before March 29th, when Brexit was supposed to have happened. In the run-up to the extended deadline of October 31st, a wave of staff and their families will head off to new digs, offices and schools.

The moves do not seem hasty. Though Brexit’s final form is unclear, only the softest of departures would keep Britain in the single market. And nothing short of that would safeguard “passporting” rights for City firms. These allow financial firms in any EU country to sell in any other and matter hugely in banking and asset management. In 2016, 5,476 firms based in Britain used 336,421 passports to sell in the EU. Around 8,000 firms in the European Economic Area, where much of the EU’s writ runs, used 23,535 of them to offer services in Britain.

Financial services account for 6.5% of Britain’s economic output and 11% of its tax revenue. The sector and its ecosystem of lawyers, consultants, lobbyists and the like employ 2.2m people, not only in the wealthy centres of the Square Mile, Canary Wharf and Edinburgh but also in places like Cardiff and Bournemouth. Yet Britain’s negotiators have treated the industry as a sideshow.

The government took the view that the City is strong enough to cope, and made little effort to keep passporting, which would have meant blurring Mrs May’s red lines. Nor did it press hard for “mutual recognition,” in which the EU would accept Britain’s rules as a basis for future trading as long as they did not diverge too much. The City is likely instead to be left with “equivalence,” a piecemeal status that the EU sometimes grants to third countries.

108. Which of the following is true as per the passage?
I. Britain has been given piecemeal status by the EU.
II. Britain has tried hard but failed to get mutual recognition from EU.
III. EU has accepted Britain’s rules as it did not diverge a lot from what it wants.

(a) Only I
(b) Only III
(c) Only I and II
(d) Only II and III
(e) None of the above

109. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word capacious as mentioned in the passage?
I. Abundant
II. cramped
III. Frenzied
IV. Ample
V. narrow

(a) Only II and V
(b) Only I, IV and V
(c) Only I, II, III and V
(d) Only II, III, IV and V
(e) All of the above

110. Why is being a part of the ‘Single Market’ so important for Britain?
(a) It will help in maintaining selling rights for certain goods and services by British firms in other EU nations.
(b) It would lead to relatively better terms of departure for Britain.
(c) This would lead to no shifting of businesses from Britain to other parts of the EU.
(d) It would lead to more banking and asset management businesses to shift from EU to Britain.
(e) None of the above

111. Which of the following could be a possible consequence of businesses moving out of Britain?
I. The nation would probably lose some of its assets.
II. This would temporarily increase business opportunities for other EU nations.
III. There may be a shift of people from Britain to other nations in the EU.

(a) Only I
(b) Only III
(c) Only I and II
(d) Only II and III
(e) All of the above

112. What does the author mean by the statement – ‘For much of the City, Brexit happened sometime last year’?
(a) Brexit took place last year with the announcement made by the Prime Minister.
(b) People were willing to prepone Brexit due to increase in business.
(c) Most of the city had started preparing for Brexit since last year.
(d) The city was advised by the Prime Minister to brace for negative business impact by Theresa May.
(e) None of the above

113. What does the author mean by the statement – ‘Yet Britain’s negotiators have treated the industry as a sideshow’?
(a) The government has not taken any steps to prevent business from going outside Britain.
(b) The government thought Brexit would have no impact whatsoever on its financial services industry.
(c) The EU negotiators have sidelined the financial services industry in favour of others.
(d) The British government have given less importance to the financial services industry in the Brexit negotiations.
(e) None of the above

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 114–117): In the following questions, a sentence is given with two blanks. You have to find the pair of words from the given options that fit both the blanks in the given order and make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

114. Congress leaders stress that this manifesto ______ the needs and ______ of the marginalised sections of society.
(a) covers, inspirations
(b) includes, requirements
(c) addresses, aspirations
(d) indicates, qualities
(e) None of the above

115. It is now important for the central bank to ______ that the discipline in the system does not ______.
(a) command, wrecked
(b) notice, week
(c) maintain, exist
(d) ensure, slacken
(e) None of the above

116. It is possible that this piece of ______ is likely to be used against him by his electoral ______.

(a) advice, clans
(b) information, rivals
(c) garbage, opponents
(d) paper, allies
(e) None of the above

117. The ______ for farm loan waivers has been growing, but this measure alone cannot be a ______ solution to mounting agrarian distress.
(a) slogans, fixed
(b) demand, efficient
(c) clamour, permanent
(d) areas, onetime
(e) request, sure

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 118–121): In this question, a sentence is divided into three fragments. One of the fragments may or may not have an error with respect to context or grammar. You have to identify that part and mark it as your answer. If all the parts are error-free, mark option ‘D’ as your answer.

118. The stubborn child started (a)/ crying and laid on (b)/ the ground after his/mother refused to (c) get him a chocolate
(a) The stubborn child started
(b) crying and laid on
(c) the ground after his/mother refused to
(d) get him a chocolate.
(e) No error

119. The founder and the CEO of the company (a)/ has decided to make (b)/ major changes in the product quality (c)/ and the marketing strategy. (d)/ No Error (e)
(a) The founder and the CEO of the company
(b) has decided to make
(c) major changes in the product quality
(d) and the marketing strategy.
(e) No Error

120. If Mahatma Gandhi were alive, (a)/ he would feel sorry for the poor (b)/ and downtrodden who still struggle (c)/ everyday to make both end meet. (d)/ No Error (e)
(a) If Mahatma Gandhi were alive,
(b) he would feel sorry for the poor
(c) and downtrodden who still struggle
(d) everyday to make both end meet.
(e) No Error

121. A Turkish human rights activist denied (a)/ terrorism charges on Wednesday, declaring (b)/ “I have no idea why we’re here,” at the trial of 11 activists, that (c)/ had become a flashpoint in Ankara’s tensions with Europe (d). No Error (e)
(a) A Turkish human rights activist denied
(b) terrorism charges on Wednesday, declaring
(c) “I have no idea why we’re here,” at the trial of 11 activists, that
(d) had become a flashpoint in Ankara’s tensions with Europe
(e) No Error

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 122–124): In the questions given below, a sentence has been broken down into four fragments labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of the fragments contains an error. You are required to identify and mark that fragment as your answer. In case, the sentence is correct with no error, please select (e) as your answer.

122. Find the error in one of the following fragments/parts.
(a) Russia, under President Vladimir Putin, is well aware of the shifting
(b) global economic balance of power in favour of Asia,
(c) and understands that economic integration with this region is the key
(d) to Russia’s successful long-term economic growth and geopolitical cloud.
(e) No error

123. Find the error in one of the following fragments/parts.
(a) The Central Water Commission was set up in 1945
(b) and has for then continued to function unreformed,
(c) presiding over a development paradigm based
(d) on command-and-control over the rivers of India.
(e) No error

124. Find the error in one of the following fragments/parts.
(a) India’s focus must be on strengthening public health systems
(b) at all levels by investing in better infrastructure as well as human resources
(c) and on the same time, progress also needs to be made
(d) on the regulation of the ever-growing private sector.
(e) No error

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 125–127): A phrase is given followed by 4 sentences in i, ii, iii and iv. Determine, in which of the given sentence/s is the usage of given phrase correct/appropriate. Choose answer accordingly.

125. Answer Back
i. Who dares to answer back when he roars like a lion?
ii. The child would answer her back to all she said.
iii. When they scolded him, he would answer them back.
iv. Handmaids aren’t allowed to answer back anything.
(a) only i
(b) only i, ii & iii
(c) only ii & iii
(d) only ii & iv
(e) All are Correct

126. Adhere to
i. If you keep refusing to adhere to the rules of the school, you may be expelled.
ii. Staff should adhere strictly to the safety guidelines.
iii. We must strictly adhere the terms to the contract.
iv. His followers adhering to a blend of Buddhist, Hindu, and Christian teachings.
(a) only i
(b) only ii & i
(c) only ii & iv
(d) only ii
(e) All are Correct

127. Drop by
i. We used to just drop by her, but they were never home, so we stopped doing that.
ii. Please drop by my home.
iii. Drop by any time you are in town.
iv. Better drop by his gallery if you have time.
(a) All except ii
(b) All except i
(c) All except iii
(d) All except iv
(e) All are Correct

128. Woke up
i. I woke up when the rooster crowed.
ii. As you said, just waking you up from a nightmare.
iii. I always wake myself up automatically at 7:00 even if I forgot to set alarm.
iv. What time do you guys wakes up?

(a) only i
(b) only ii
(c) only iii
(d) only iv
(e) All are correct

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 129–131): Each sentence given below contains a blank followed by 4 phrases. Determine which of the phrases given will fill the blank giving the correct/appropriate meaning of the sentence. Choose option (e), if all phrases fill the blank.

129. When he fell off the horse, he __.
(a) blacked out
(b) blocked off
(c) bailed out
(d) backed out
(e) All are Correct

130. As soon as I got to the airport, I __.
(a) Joined in
(b) Moved in
(c) Checked in
(d) Dived in
(e) All are Correct

131. I hate to __ the meeting, but I have to go to the bathroom.
(a) left out
(b) hung up
(c) held up
(d) hold up
(e) All are Correct

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 132–136): Rearrange the following seven sentences A, B, C, D, E, F, and G in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question given beside.

A. Providing benefits for women and children is a societal responsibility which can be funded in a large country through a combination of general taxation and contributory payments.
B. This should further lead to closer scrutiny of the difficulties faced by unorganised workers who fall beyond the scope of any worthwhile labour welfare measures.
C. The enhancement of paid maternity leave for women in the organised sector to 26 weeks from 12 is a progressive step.
D. The reported move to restrict even this meagre benefit to the first child for budgetary reasons is retrograde and must be given up.
E. Positive though it is, the amended law is expected to cover only 1.8 million women, a small subset of women in the workforce.
F. For many poor millions in the unorganised sector, the only support available is a small conditional cash benefit of Rs. 6,000 during pregnancy and lactation offered under the Maternity Benefit Programme.
G. It is wholly welcome that such a benefit is being introduced with an amendment to the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961.

132. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) A
(c) E
(d) B
(e) G

133. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) D
(b) A
(c) E
(d) G
(e) B

134. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) G
(c) D
(d) B
(e) A

135. Which of the following would be the LAST BUT ONE sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) F
(c) E
(d) C
(e) D

136. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) E
(b) G
(c) F
(d) A
(e) D

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 137–140): In the following questions two columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. In the first column, sentences/phrases are A, B, and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E, and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark option (E), i.e., “None of these” as your answer.

137.

Column (1)	Column (2)
(A) In such a situation, the sound of the gong continues to be a	(D) mobile phone network as well.
(B) It is out of reach for the	(E) for attend the funeral, the gong is beaten twice.
(C) To call the villagers	(F) means of communication for around 35 tribal families living in the village.

(a) A-F
(b) B-F, A-E, C-D
(c) A-F, B-D
(d) B-F, A-E
(e) None of the above

138.

Column (1)	Column (2)
(A) If I had lasting pain,	(D) it wasn’t a race — she needed to take it slow.
(B) She eventually came to realise that	(E) then gain five at the end of the month.
(C) I would lose two kilograms at the end of the first week,	(F) I would have got it checked by her.

(a) A-F
(b) A-F, B-D, C-E
(c) B-F, C-D
(d) B-F, A-E
(e) None of the above

139.

Column (1)	Column (2)
(A) In this digital age it is important to have	(D) Once the papers are checked by the experts
(B) The students of the school are very smart	(E) your presence in the digital space to increase your revenue
(C) Uploading of the answer keys will take place	(F) but they are very narrow-minded in terms of humanity

(a) A-D, B-F
(b) A-E, B-D
(c) A-F, B-D, C-E
(d) C-D, B-F
(e) None of the above

140.

Column (1)	Column (2)
(A) The world’s first hydrogen train is entering	(D) to fight against the pollution diesel trains with these eco-friendly trains.
(B) Hydrogen trains are equipped with	(E) into commercial service and is ready for serial production.
(C) Germany started an initiative	(F) fuel cells that produce electricity through a combination of hydrogen and oxygen.

(a) A-E
(b) B-F, A-E, C-D
(c) B-F, C-D
(d) B-F, A-E
(e) None of the above

GENERAL/FINANCIAL AWARENESS

141. Which animal is on the logo on World Wide Fund?
(a) White Tiger
(b) Giant Lion
(c) Giant Panda
(d) World
(e) White Elephant

142. Which Bank has 32% shareholding in Yes Bank?
(a) SBI
(b) Bank of Baroda
(c) NABARD
(d) UCO Bank
(e) Union Bank of India

143. Which bank is related to the recovery of bad Loans?
(a) NABARD
(b) SIDBI
(c) Non-Banking Financial Companies
(d) National Asset Reconstruction Ltd
(e) Non-Performing Asset Bank

144. Which of the following is not a part of Small Saving Schemes?
(a) Sukanya Samridhi Yojana
(b) PM Vaya Vandana Yojana
(c) Post Office Saving Scheme
(d) Kishan Vikas Patra
(e) Public Provident Fund

145. By which date Legal Identifier has to be enforced?
(a) January 23, 2023
(b) April 30, 2023
(c) June 30, 2023
(d) July 30, 2023
(e) May 30, 2023

146. By which year India’s Population will reach to 675 Billion according to World Cities Report?
(a) 2030
(b) 2035
(c) 2040
(d) 2045
(e) 2050

147. By which date Pradhan Mantri Svanidhi Yojana has been Extended?
(a) December 2024
(b) January 2024
(c) February 2024
(d) April 2024
(e) June 2024

148. Novak Djokovic won the 2022 Gentlemen’s Single Title against Nick Kyrgios, to win the ___ Wimbledon Grand Slam?
(a) 20th
(b) 21st
(c) 22nd
(d) 23rd
(e) 24th

149. International Day of Democracy is celebrated on
(a) 14 September
(b) 15 September
(c) 16 September
(d) 17 September
(e) 18 September

150. What does A stand for in NIRYAT?
(a) Analysis
(b) And
(c) Attractiveness
(d) Attention
(e) Aptitude

151. Saubhagya Scheme is related to which Ministry?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Power
(d) Ministry of Textile
(e) Ministry of Home

152. NATO was formed under which accord?
(a) Washington Treaty
(b) Belgium Treaty
(c) Lisbon Treaty
(d) Vienna Treaty
(e) Seoul Treaty

153. The 48th G7 Summit held in
(a) Santa, Argentina
(b) Amazonas, Brazil
(c) Bavarian Alps, Germany
(d) Washington, USA
(e) Osaka, Japan

154. Which of the following can issue Certificate of Deposit?
(a) Scheduled Commercial Bank
(b) Regional Rural Bank
(c) Small Finance Bank
(d) None of the Above
(e) All of the Above

155. How many Credit Rating Agencies are in India?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
(e) 11

156. What is the limit of Liberalised Remittance Scheme?
(a) USD 200,000
(b) USD 250,000
(c) USD 300,000
(d) USD 350,000
(e) None of The Above

157. When was Shinzo Abe becomes the Prime Minister of Japan for the First time?

(a) 25^th September, 2005
(b) 26^th September, 2006
(c) 27^th September, 2008
(d) 27^th September, 2009
(e) 28^th September, 2009
(f) 29^th September, 2009

158. Anti defection Law is related to which Schedule of the constitution?
(a) 8th
(b) 9th
(c) 10th
(d) 12th
(e) 13th

159. Which of the following is not allowed Payment through Payment Gateways?
(a) Remittances
(b) Point of Sale Option
(c) Initiate Commerce
(d) Payment in Crypto currencies
(e) None of the Above

160. How many Credit Information Companies are regulated by RBI?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8
(e) 10

161. What is the limit to set up Bharat Bill Payment operating Unit?
(a) 25 crore
(b) 30 crore
(c) 35 crore
(d) 40 crore
(e) 45 crore

162. Who is the Sponsor of Paris Olympics?
(a) Coca-Cola
(b) Maaza
(c) Thums UP
(d) Pepsi
(e) Fanta

163. What is the minimum yearly contribution required to be made in an account in the National Pension system?
(a) Rs 500
(b) Rs 1000
(c) Rs 1500
(d) Rs 2000
(e) Rs 2500

164. Indian Trade Rupee is covered under which Act?
(a) The Indian Institute of Petroleum & Energy Act
(b) The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Asset Act
(c) Foreign Exchange and Management Act
(d) None of the Above
(e) All of the Above

165. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Scheme was launched on
(a) September 2020
(b) October 2020
(c) November 2020
(d) December 2020
(e) October 2021

166. What is the GST revision for Hotel Rooms?
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 12%
(d) 18%
(e) 20%

167. ______ are retail agents engaged by banks for providing banking services at locations other than a bank branch/ATM. It is called
(a) Banking Correspondent
(b) Business Correspondent
(c) Retail Correspondent
(d) None of the Above
(e) All of the Above

168. What is the full form of FLOP?
(a) Fixed Point Operations per Second
(b) Floating Point Operations per Second
(c) Flowing Point Operations per Second
(d) None of the Above
(e) All of the above

169. The Large Collider (LHC) is the most powerful particle accelerator. The Accelerator site will be set up in
(a) France
(b) Switzerland
(c) Germany
(d) Indonesia
(e) Italy

170. RBI observes Financial Literacy Week every year since
(a) 2010
(b) 2016
(c) 2018
(d) 2020
(e) 2022

171. The PGI-D grades the districts into 10 grades. The highest achievable grade is
(a) Daksh
(b) Utkarsh
(c) Ati Uttam
(d) Uttam

172. Who is the G20 Sherpa from India to attend the 1st Sherpa Meeting of India’s G20 Presidency?
(a) Piyush Goyal
(b) Amitabh Kant
(c) Rajiv Kumar
(d) Gazi Khan

173. The Ratio of Gross Non-Performing Assets and Scheduled Commercial Bank is
(a) 6.0%
(b) 5.9%
(c) 5.6%
(d) 5.4%
(e) 5.5%

174. Chabahar Port is located in
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Iran
(c) Pakistan
(d) Uzbekistan
(e) Iraq

175. Which institution gives status to Threatened Species?
(a) WWF
(b) CITES
(c) IUCN
(d) UNESCO
(e) RBI

176. Which organisation plans to train 100 entomologists in a year to battle vector-borne diseases?
(a) ICAR
(b) ICMR
(c) RRB
(d) AIIMS
(e) None of The Above

177. What is the maximum age limit of Aarogya Sanjeevani Scheme?
(a) 55 Years
(b) 60 Years
(c) 65 Years
(d) 70 Years
(e) 75 Years

178. Who won the Field Medal Award in 2022?
(a) Maryna Viazovska
(b) Peter Scholze
(c) Laurent Lafforgue
(d) Akshay Venkatesh
(e) Alessio Fegalli

179. The Centre has set a new target of a ___% reduction in particulate matter concentration in cities covered under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) by 2026.
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%
(e) 80%

180. Crypto currencies are verified through which System?
(a) Centralized
(b) Decentralized
(c) Financial Transaction
(d) None of the Above
(e) All of The Above

181. Rubber Board of India has signed MOU with which State?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Gujarat
(e) Rajasthan

182. ______ become the official Partner with the IOA for the upcoming Birmingham Commonwealth Games 2022 (England), Hangzhou Asian Games 2022 (China) & Paris Olympic Games 2024 (France).
(a) Byju
(b) Sportline
(c) Ali Sports
(d) Unacademy
(e) Gimpse

183. In case of matured SHGs, loans may be given beyond the limit of ______ times the savings as per the discretion of the bank.
(a) 3 Times
(b) 4 Times
(c) 5 Times
(d) 6 Times
(e) 7 Times

184. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways announced all the Categories of light, Medium, and Heavy-duty Motor Vehicles, whether manufactured in India or imported, will have to comply with the Fuel Consumption Standards (FCS) from
(a) April 1, 2023
(b) April 2, 2023
(c) April 3, 2023
(d) April 4, 2023
(e) April 4, 2023

185. Which Country became the Top Trading Partner of India in the FY 2021-22?
(a) USA
(b) Australia
(c) Canada
(d) China
(e) France

186. Name the top three among the General Category states in the First edition of the “State Ranking Index for National Food Security Act Index”?
(a) Odisha, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana
(c) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat
(d) Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha
(e) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu

187. As per the Foreign Contribution Amendment Rules, 2022, Indians can now receive up to ______ in a year from relatives living abroad without informing the authorities.
(a) 8 Lakhs
(b) 10 Lakhs
(c) 12 Lakhs
(d) 15 Lakhs
(e) 20 Lakhs

188. The Week, Indian Magazine was published by which organisation?
(a) Pratiyogita Darpan
(b) Disha Publication
(c) Reader’s Digest
(d) Competition Success
(e) Manorama

189. Which is the only Asian City in the Top 10 Ranking of Global Liveability Index 2022?
(a) Kyoto
(b) Kuala Lumpur
(c) Nagoya
(d) Honshu
(e) Osaka

190. Aggregate Fund based and Non Fund based exposure of ______ and above to CRILC maintained by RBI?
(a) 1 Crore
(b) 2 Crore
(c) 5 Crore
(d) 8 Crore
(e) 10 Crore