Topic’s Weightage
| Section | No. of questions |
| English | 30 |
| General Awareness | 25 |
| Aptitude | 45 |
| Total | 100 |
Section 1 : English
| Section | No. of questions |
| English | 30 |
| General Awareness | 25 |
| Aptitude | 45 |
| Total | 100 |
Section 1 : English
| English | No. of questions |
| Passage | 3 |
| Spotting Error | 4 |
| Fill in the Blank | 4 |
| Synonyms | 3 |
| Antonyms | 2 |
| Contextual Vocabulary | 3 |
| Analogy | 3 |
| Jumbled Sentence | 2 |
| Idiom | 3 |
| Word Substitute | 3 |
| Total | 30 |
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it.
As the rulers of the planet, human beings like to think that it is the large creatures who will emerge victorious in the struggle for survival. However, nature teaches us the opposite. It is often the smallest species which are the toughest and most adaptable. A perfect example is the hummingbird, which is found in the American countries. One species of hummingbird is known as the bee hummingbird which ranks as the world’s smallest and lightest bird and it is barely visible when it is in flight. Hummingbirds are the only birds that can fly backwards. They feed mainly on the nectar of flowers, a liquid that is rich in energy. Nectar is an ideal food source, for hummingbirds need an incredible amount of energy to sustain their body metabolism. A hummingbird’s wings flap at a rate of about 80 times per second and its tiny heart beats more than 1000 times per minute. This is why they must consume relatively large quantities of food. In the course of a day, a hummingbird consumes nectar as much as half its body weight. The beauty of Nature is the uniqueness of her creation to adapt in any condition.
Which of the following statements about the bee hummingbird is true? (Choose your answer from the given options)
A. It is obviously visible when it flies
B. It escapes our sight when it is in flight
C. It can fly high beyond the clouds
D. It subsists on pollens
Answer: B. It escapes our sight when it is in flight
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that the bee hummingbird is “barely visible when it is in flight,” meaning it escapes easy observation. Option B (“It escapes our sight when it is in flight”) aligns with this description, while A (“It is obviously visible when it flies”) contradicts it. Options C and D are not supported by the passage.
2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it.
As the rulers of the planet, human beings like to think that it is the large creatures who will emerge victorious in the struggle for survival. However, nature teaches us the opposite. It is often the smallest species which are the toughest and most adaptable. A perfect example is the hummingbird, which is found in the American countries. One species of hummingbird is known as the bee hummingbird which ranks as the world’s smallest and lightest bird and it is barely visible when it is in flight. Hummingbirds are the only birds that can fly backwards. They feed mainly on the nectar of flowers, a liquid that is rich in energy. Nectar is an ideal food source, for hummingbirds need an incredible amount of energy to sustain their body metabolism. A hummingbird’s wings flap at a rate of about 80 times per second and its tiny heart beats more than 1000 times per minute. This is why they must consume relatively large quantities of food. In the course of a day, a hummingbird consumes nectar as much as half its body weight. The beauty of Nature is the uniqueness of her creation to adapt in any condition.
Nature has made man realise the fact that ____________. (Choose your answer from the given options)
A. the large creatures emerge victorious in the struggle for survival
B. the largest species are usually strong, hence survives
C. humans who rule the planet are the most powerful beings on Earth
D. the smallest creatures are toughest with strong adaptability and natural survival instinct
Answer: D. the smallest creatures are toughest with strong adaptability and natural survival instinct
Explanation: The passage contrasts human assumptions (large creatures dominate) with nature’s lesson (smallest species are toughest and most adaptable). Option D directly reflects this idea, while A, B, and C either misalign with the passage or distort its meaning.
3. Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it.
As the rulers of the planet, human beings like to think that it is the large creatures who will emerge victorious in the struggle for survival. However, nature teaches us the opposite. It is often the smallest species which are the toughest and most adaptable. A perfect example is the hummingbird, which is found in the American countries. One species of hummingbird is known as the bee hummingbird which ranks as the world’s smallest and lightest bird and it is barely visible when it is in flight. Hummingbirds are the only birds that can fly backwards. They feed mainly on the nectar of flowers, a liquid that is rich in energy. Nectar is an ideal food source, for hummingbirds need an incredible amount of energy to sustain their body metabolism. A hummingbird’s wings flap at a rate of about 80 times per second and its tiny heart beats more than 1000 times per minute. This is why they must consume relatively large quantities of food. In the course of a day, a hummingbird consumes nectar as much as half its body weight. The beauty of Nature is the uniqueness of her creation to adapt in any condition.
Hummingbirds are unique species, in a sense that ______________. (Choose your answer from the given options)
A. they can sustain fast body metabolism while flying for long duration to evade predators
B. their flapping of wings creates humming sound which helps them to fly backwards
C. they can feed on nectar of flowers by easily steering and hovering in air close to the flowers
D. they survive only on nectar of flowers, hence requires to consume in large quantity after flight
Answer: C. they can feed on nectar of flowers by easily steering and hovering in air close to the flowers
Explanation: The ability to fly backwards and hover while feeding on nectar is a unique trait implied by the passage. Option C (“they can feed on nectar of flowers by easily steering and hovering in air close to the flowers”) best captures this, as it ties their flight capability to their feeding habits. Option A is speculative, B is incorrect (no humming sound is mentioned), and D is too narrow.
4. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Spot the error from the given options.
He is trying (a)/ to earn money (b)/ for myself and him (c). / no error (d)
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Answer: C. (c)
Explanation: The pronoun “myself” is incorrect here. “Myself” is a reflexive pronoun and should only be used when the subject and object are the same (e.g., “I hurt myself”). In this sentence, “he” is the subject, so the correct pronoun should be “me” (“for me and him”). The error is in part (c).
5. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Spot the error from the given options.
The doctor observed (a)/ that the patient (b)/ was gradually (c)/ becoming weak (d).
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Answer: D. (d)
Explanation: There is no grammatical error in this sentence. “The doctor observed” (a) is correct, “that the patient” (b) is a proper clause, “was gradually” (c) is an appropriate adverb-verb pairing, and “becoming weak” (d) is a valid phrase. However, the answer provided is (D), which seems incorrect based on standard grammar. If “weak” were intended to be “weaker” (comparative), it might be an error, but the sentence as written is grammatically sound. Assuming no typo, “no error” should be correct.
6. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Spot the error from the given options.
As soon as I shall reach Mumbai (a)/ I shall send you the file (b)/ you have asked for (c)./ no error (d)
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Answer: A. (a)
Explanation: In standard English, “as soon as” is followed by the present tense in time clauses, not “shall” (future). The correct phrasing would be “As soon as I reach Mumbai.” The use of “shall” in part (a) is the error.
7. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Spot the error from the given options.
The students of (a)/ commerce stream are (b)/ not able to cope up (c)/ with the new syllabus (d).
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Answer: C. (c)
Explanation: The phrase “cope up” is incorrect in standard English. The verb “cope” does not require “up”; it should simply be “not able to cope with.” The error is in part (c).
8. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word from the given options.
This candidate lacks (a)/ an experience (b)/ otherwise (c)/ he is well qualified (d).
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Answer: B. (b)
Explanation: “Experience” is an uncountable noun in this context and does not take the indefinite article “an.” The correct phrase would be “lacks experience.” The error is in part (b).
9. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word from the given options.
There are several ways of ______________ the price at which a product can be marketed.
A. judging
B. evaluating
C. determining
D. estimating
Answer: C. determining
Explanation: “Determining” means establishing or fixing something definitively, which fits the context of setting a price for marketing. “Judging” (forming an opinion), “evaluating” (assessing), and “estimating” (approximating) are less precise in this scenario.
10. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word from the given options.
The Managing Director treated the employees to a ____________ lunch at an expensive hotel.
A. stupendous
B. sumptuous
C. tasteful
D. thriving
Answer: B. sumptuous
Explanation: “Sumptuous” means lavish or luxurious, which aligns with a lunch at an expensive hotel. “Stupendous” (amazing) is exaggerated, “tasteful” (elegant but not necessarily lavish) is too mild, and “thriving” (flourishing) doesn’t fit the context.
11. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word from the given options.
Contemporary economic development differs ________ from the Industrial Revolution of the 19th century.
A. naturally
B. usually
C. literally
D. markedly
Answer: D. markedly
Explanation: “Differs” implies a distinction, and the blank requires an adverb to describe the extent or manner of the difference. “Markedly” means noticeably or significantly, which fits the context of comparing two distinct historical phenomena. “Naturally” (in a natural way), “usually” (typically), and “literally” (exactly) don’t convey the intended emphasis on a clear distinction.
12. In the following question, out of the given alternatives, choose the best one which expresses the meaning of the given word.
APATHETIC
A. Distress
B. Impatient
C. Indifferent
D. Disgust
Answer: C. Indifferent
Explanation: “Apathetic” means showing a lack of interest or concern. “Indifferent” (not caring) is the closest synonym. “Distress” (anguish), “impatient” (restless), and “disgust” (revulsion) have different emotional connotations.
13. In the following question, out of the given alternatives, choose the best one which expresses the meaning of the given word.
CHERISH
A. Treasure
B. Disregard
C. Forsake
D. Contest
Answer: A. Treasure
Explanation: “Cherish” means to hold dear or value highly. “Treasure” (to value or adore) is the best match. “Disregard” (ignore), “forsake” (abandon), and “contest” (challenge) are unrelated or opposite in meaning.
14. In the following question, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.
OBNOXIOUS
A. Obscure
B. Hostile
C. Gloomy
D. Pleasant
Answer: D. Pleasant
Explanation: “Obnoxious” means offensive or unpleasant. “Pleasant” (agreeable) is its direct opposite. “Obscure” (unclear), “hostile” (unfriendly), and “gloomy” (sad) do not align as opposites.
15. In the following question, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.
PENSIVE
A. Hazard
B. Peasant
C. Thoughtless
D. Expedite
Answer: C. Thoughtless
Explanation: “Pensive” means deeply thoughtful or reflective. “Thoughtless” (lacking thought) is the opposite. “Hazard” (danger), “peasant” (farmer), and “expedite” (hasten) are unrelated.
16. Select the most appropriate word from the options against X .
Democracy has its dangers, the greatest of which is that it may be the rule of ignorance. Citizens who are not X intelligent and educated are likely to commit errors of judgement in Y their franchise. The best candidate may thus, Z to get elected. Elections are usually a matter of propaganda.
A. barely
B. adequately
C. highly
D. perfectly
Answer: B. adequately
Explanation: The sentence implies that a lack of sufficient intelligence and education leads to errors. “Adequately” (sufficiently) fits, as “not adequately intelligent and educated” means lacking the necessary level. “Barely” (hardly) weakens the meaning, “highly” (very) reverses it, and “perfectly” (flawlessly) is too extreme.
17. Select the most appropriate word from the options against Y .
Democracy has its dangers, the greatest of which is that it may be the rule of ignorance. Citizens who are not X intelligent and educated are likely to commit errors of judgement in Y their franchise. The best candidate may thus, Z to get elected. Elections are usually a matter of propaganda.
A. deciding
B. proclaiming
C. declaring
D. exercising
Answer: D. exercising
Explanation: “Franchise” here refers to the right to vote. “Exercising” (using or applying) is the most appropriate verb for performing the act of voting. “Deciding” (choosing) is part of the process but less specific, while “proclaiming” (announcing) and “declaring” (stating) don’t fit the context.
18. Select the most appropriate word from the options against __Z___.
Democracy has its dangers, the greatest of which is that it may be the rule of ignorance. Citizens who are not __X__ intelligent and educated are likely to commit errors of judgement in ___Y___ their franchise. The best candidate may thus, ___Z___ to get elected. Elections are usually a matter of propaganda.
A. fail
B. succeed
C. dislike
D. desire
Answer: A. fail
Explanation: The sentence suggests a negative outcome due to ignorant voters’ errors. “Fail” fits, as it means the best candidate might not get elected. “Succeed” contradicts the logic, while “dislike” and “desire” are irrelevant to the outcome of an election.
19. The given idiom is followed by four meanings. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom:-
Take the bull by the horns
A. To sabotage a plan
B. To meet the danger boldly
C. To remain careful
D. To lose control
Answer: B. To meet the danger boldly
Explanation: The idiom means to confront a difficult situation directly and courageously. “To meet the danger boldly” captures this precisely. The other options misrepresent the proactive, fearless connotation.
20. The given idiom is followed by four meanings. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom:-
To pour oil on troubled waters
A. To instigate people
B. To pacify matters
C. To sail through difficult time
D. To follow other’s opinion
Answer: B. To pacify matters
Explanation: This idiom means to calm or soothe a tense situation. “To pacify matters” is the best fit. “To instigate people” (stir trouble) is the opposite, while “sail through difficult time” and “follow other’s opinion” are unrelated.
21. The given sentence is followed by four phrases/ idioms. Choose the one which can be filled in the blank to make the sentence most meaningful and correct.
He suspected that the manager has __________________ in the proposal.
A. an axe to grind
B. an oily tongue
C. an alpha and omega
D. ins and outs
Answer: A. an axe to grind
Explanation: “An axe to grind” means having a hidden motive or personal interest. In the context of suspecting the manager’s involvement in a proposal, it suggests a self-serving agenda, making it the most meaningful choice. “An oily tongue” (flattery), “an alpha and omega” (beginning and end), and “ins and outs” (details) don’t fit as logically.
22. In the following question there is a related pair of words given. Each pair is followed by four other pairs of words. Choose the pair from the given option the pair of words that best expresses the relationship like the original pair.
Promise : Fulfil
A. Pawn : Redeem
B. Pledge : Deny
C. Law : Enforce
D. Prisoner : Release
Answer: C. Law : Enforce
Explanation: “Promise : Fulfil” shows an action (promise) followed by its completion (fulfil). “Law : Enforce” mirrors this: a law is made and then enforced (carried out). “Pawn : Redeem” involves reversal, “Pledge : Deny” is oppositional, and “Prisoner : Release” lacks a direct causal link.
23. In the following question there are a related pair of words given. Each pair is followed by four other pairs of words. Choose the pair from the given option the pair of words that best expresses the relationship like the original pair.
Heed : Ignore
A. Pacify : Incite
B. Surmount : Conquer
C. Allay : Dispel
D. Conflict : Discord
Answer: A. Pacify : Incite
Explanation: “Heed” (pay attention) and “Ignore” (disregard) are opposites. “Pacify” (calm) and “Incite” (provoke) are also opposites, making it the best match. The other pairs are either synonyms or unrelated.
24. In the following question there is a related pair of words given. Each pair is followed by four other pairs of words. Choose the pair from the given option the pair of words that best expresses the relationship like the original pair.
Escape : Abscond
A. Freedom : Individuality
B. Exult : Lament
C. Weaken : Submission
D. Endless : Eternal
Answer: D. Endless : Eternal
Explanation: “Escape” and “Abscond” are synonyms, both meaning to flee. “Endless” and “Eternal” are also synonyms (both meaning infinite duration). The other pairs lack this synonymous relationship.
25. The following question, consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence which is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named as P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.
In spite of an unprecedented boom in the market__________________ what he had sold the previous year.
P : and had to remain content
Q : the paper dealer could not
R : push up his sales
S : with a volume of sale lower than
A. QRPS
B. SPRQ
C. QRSP
D. RPSQ
Answer: A. QRPS
Explanation: The correct sentence is: “In spite of an unprecedented boom in the market, the paper dealer could not push up his sales and had to remain content with a volume of sale lower than what he had sold the previous year.” QRPS (Q: the paper dealer could not, R: push up his sales, P: and had to remain content, S: with a volume of sale lower than) forms a logical sequence.
26. The following question, consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence which is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named as P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.
Private sector is guided by _________________________ have low profitability.
P : pattern of society loses its relevance as
Q : profit motive and therefore socialistic
R : which take long time to complete and
S : it does not take interest in the projects
A. QRPS
B. PRSQ
C. RSQP
D. QPSR
Answer: D. QPSR
Explanation: The correct sentence is: “Private sector is guided by profit motive and therefore socialistic pattern of society loses its relevance as it does not take interest in the projects which take long time to complete and have low profitability.” QPSR (Q: profit motive and therefore socialistic, P: pattern of society loses its relevance as, S: it does not take interest in the projects, R: which take long time to complete and) is coherent.
27. The following question, consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence which is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named as P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.
Science does not merely add new truths ________________ men’s thinking and their lives.
P : destroy some old truths and
Q : discovers new truths that
R : thereby upsets the way of
S : to old ones, it also
A. QSRP
B. SPQR
C. SQPR
D. PSRQ
Answer: C. SQPR
Explanation: The correct sentence is: “Science does not merely add new truths to old ones, it also discovers new truths that thereby upsets the way of men’s thinking and their lives.” SQPR (S: to old ones, it also, Q: discovers new truths that, P: thereby upsets the way of, R: men’s thinking and their lives) flows logically.
28. In the following question a sentence or a phrase is given which can be substituted by one word. Choose the most appropriate word explaining the sentence or the phrase from the given option.
A short story with a moral or spiritual lesson is known as ___________
A. Fiction
B. Prose
C. Parable
D. Fairy Tale
Answer: C. Parable
Explanation: A “parable” is a short story designed to teach a moral or spiritual lesson, fitting the description perfectly. “Fiction” is broader, “prose” is a writing style, and “fairy tale” typically involves fantasy without a guaranteed moral focus.
29. In the following question a sentence or a phrase is given which can be substituted by one word. Choose the most appropriate word explaining the sentence or the phrase from the given option.
A person who is excessively anxious about his health is known as ___________
A. Fastidious
B. Hypochondriac
C. Pacifist
D. Chauvinist
Answer: B. Hypochondriac
Explanation: A “hypochondriac” is someone overly worried about their health, matching the description. “Fastidious” (picky), “pacifist” (peace advocate), and “chauvinist” (biased loyalty) are unrelated.
30. In the following question a sentence or a phrase is given which can be substituted by one word. Choose the most appropriate word explaining the sentence or the phrase from the given option.
The process of compulsory enlistment for military service is called ____________
A. Recruitment
B. Conscription
C. Pantheism
D. Sinecure
Answer: B. Conscription
Explanation: “Conscription” refers to mandatory military service, unlike “recruitment” (voluntary). “Pantheism” (belief in all gods) and “sinecure” (easy job) are irrelevant.
Section 2 : General Awareness
| General Awareness | No. of questions |
| History | 2 |
| Geography | 3 |
| Awards | 2 |
| Sports | 1 |
| International Organisations | 2 |
| Art & Culture | 2 |
| Science | 4 |
| Polity | 1 |
| Economics | 2 |
| Schemes | 1 |
| Internal Security | 5 |
| Total | 25 |
31. Choose the most appropriate answer.
Name the place where the excavations provided the evidence of maritime trade during the period of the Harappan culture?
A. Mohenjodaro
B. Lothal
C. Kalibangan
D. Ropar
Answer: B. Lothal
Explanation: Lothal, in Gujarat, is known for its dockyard, indicating maritime trade in the Harappan civilization.
32. Choose the most appropriate answer.
Which of the following represents the first mass movement started by Mahatma Gandhi?
A. Non Cooperation Movement.
B. Quit India Movement.
C. Champaran Movement.
D. Salt Movement
Answer: C. Champaran Movement.
Explanation: The Champaran Movement (1917) was Gandhi’s first significant public campaign in India, addressing indigo farmers’ issues, predating the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920).
33. Choose the most appropriate answer.
Which amongst the under mentioned Indian states do not share border with Myanmar?
A. Meghalaya
B. Mizoram
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Nagaland
Answer: A. Meghalaya
Explanation: Meghalaya borders Bangladesh, not Myanmar. Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, and Nagaland share borders with Myanmar.
34. Choose the most appropriate answer.
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A. Rourkela – Odisha
B. Durgapur – West Bengal
C. Jamshedpur – Jharkhand
D. Bhilai – Madhya Pradesh
Answer: D. Bhilai – Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: Bhilai is in Chhattisgarh, not Madhya Pradesh. The others are correct: Rourkela (Odisha), Durgapur (West Bengal), Jamshedpur (Jharkhand).
35. Choose the most appropriate answer.
India’s highest sporting honour, “The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award” has been renamed after which famous personality?
A. Sunil Gavaskar
B. PT Usha
C. Major Dhyan Chand
D. Sachin Tendulkar
Answer: C. Major Dhyan Chand
Explanation: The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was renamed the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2021.
36. Choose the most appropriate answer.
What is the order of sequence of colours in the Olympic Games logo rings?
A. Blue, Yellow, Black, Green, Red
B. Black, Green, Red, Yellow, Green
C. Yellow, Black, Blue, Red, Green
D. Green, Black, Blue, Yellow, Red
Answer: A. Blue, Yellow, Black, Green, Red
Explanation: The Olympic rings are Blue, Yellow, Black, Green, Red (left to right, top row, then bottom row).
37. Choose the most appropriate answer.
Name the organisation that organises ‘World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS)’, an annual flagship event which provides a platform to discuss and deliberate over climatic issues of universal importance.
A. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
B. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
C. World Economic Forum (WEF)
D. The Energy and Resource Institute (TERI)
Answer: D. The Energy and Resource Institute (TERI)
Explanation: The Energy and Resource Institute (TERI) organizes the WSDS annually in India.
38. Choose the most appropriate answer.
Which of the following is the folk music of Rajasthan?
A. Lotia
B. Pandwani
C. Chakri
D. Tappa
Answer: A. Lotia
Explanation: “Lotia” is a folk song form from Rajasthan. Pandwani (Chhattisgarh), Chakri (Kashmir), and Tappa (Punjab) are from other regions.
39. Choose the most appropriate answer.
The famous painting THE LAST SUPPER, was painted by which of the following artist?
A. Pablo Picasso
B. Vincent Van Gogh
C. Leonardo da Vinci
D. Michelangelo
Answer: C. Leonardo da Vinci
Explanation: Leonardo da Vinci painted The Last Supper, a famous Renaissance artwork.
40. Choose the most appropriate answer.
Name the film that has been awarded the 67th National Film award in the category of ‘Best Film on Environment Conservation’.
A. Ottal
B. Water Burial
C. Black Forest
D. Malli
Answer: B. Water Burial
Explanation: “Water Burial” won the award in 2021 for its environmental theme.
41. Match the List I with the correct options of List II.
| List I (Property) | List II(Metal) |
| 1. Best Conductor of Heat and electricity | I. Gallium |
| 2. Highly resistant to corrosion | II. Lead |
| 3. Has low melting point but high boiling point | III. Rhodium |
| 4. Least conductor of heat | IV. Silver |
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options A, B, C, D.
A. 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II
B. 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
C. 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I
D. 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV
Answer: A. 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II
Explanation: 1. Best conductor: Silver (IV), 2. Highly resistant to corrosion: Rhodium (III), 3. Low melting, high boiling: Gallium (I), 4. Least conductor of heat: Lead (II). Option A matches correctly.
42. Choose the most appropriate answer.
By which of the following Amendment Act the word “Secular” was inserted into the Constitution of India?
A. 44th Amendment Act
B. 52nd Amendment Act
C. 34th Amendment Act
D. 42nd Amendment Act
Answer: D. 42nd Amendment Act
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) added “Secular” to the Preamble.
43. Choose the most appropriate answer.
Which of the following company developed the UPI based payment interface application BHIM 2.0 app?
A. National Information Corporation
B. National Payment Corporation of India
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India
D. Financial Action Task Force
Answer: B. National Payment Corporation of India
Explanation: National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI) developed BHIM, a UPI-based app
44. Match List I with the correct options of List II
| List I(Vitamin) | List II(Diseases) |
| 1. Vitamin B | I. Night Blindness |
| 2. Vitamin K | II. Diarrhoea |
| 3. Vitamin C | III Haemorrhage |
| 4. Vitamin A | IV. Scurvy |
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options A, B, C, D.
A. 1-I, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-II
B. 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
C. 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
D. 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV
Answer: B. 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
Explanation: 1. Vitamin B: Diarrhoea (II), 2. Vitamin K: Haemorrhage (III), 3. Vitamin C: Scurvy (IV), 4. Vitamin A: Night Blindness (I). Option B matches correctly.
45. Choose the most appropriate answer.
“For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.’’ This statement represents which of the Newton’s Laws of Motion?
A. Newton’s First Law of Motion
B. Newton’s Second Law of Motion
C. Newton’s Third Law of Motion
D. Newton’s Fourth Law of motion
Answer: C. Newton’s Third Law of Motion
Explanation: This is Newton’s Third Law of Motion.
46. Choose the most appropriate answer.
Which of the following Airline is a joint venture of Singapore Airlines and Tata Sons ?
A. Air India
B. Vistara
C. Go Air
D. Spice Jet
Answer: B. Vistara
Explanation: Vistara is a collaboration between Tata Sons and Singapore Airlines.
47. Choose the most appropriate
Consider the following statements related to Unified Mobile Application for New age Governance (UMANG).
I. UMANG app provides access to only Central Government Service.
II. UMANG app is available for Android, iOS, Windows and Kai OS operating system.
III. UMANG is currently available only in Hindi and English language.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
A. I and II only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
Answer: B. II only
Explanation: I. False (includes state services too), II. True (available on Android, iOS, Windows, KaiOS), III. False (supports multiple Indian languages). Only II is true.
48. Choose the most appropriate answer.
Which of the following occasions mark the celebration of National Science Day?
A. Dr. CV Raman’s Birth Anniversary
B. The day when Dr. CV Raman was awarded The Noble Prize.
C. The day when The Raman Effect was discovered.
D. Death Anniversary of Dr. CV Raman
Answer: C. The day when The Raman Effect was discovered.
Explanation: Celebrated on February 28, marking the discovery of the Raman Effect by Dr. C.V. Raman in 1928.
49. Consider the following pairs of crops and regions:
1. Makhana : Mithila Region of Bihar
2. Gucchi Mushroom : Western Ghats
3. Isabgol : Southern Rajasthan
Choose the most appropriate option that represents the correct matching of pairs.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: D. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: 1. Makhana: Mithila (Bihar) – True, 2. Gucchi Mushroom: Western Ghats – False (found in Himalayas), 3. Isabgol: Southern Rajasthan – True. Only 1 and 3 are correct.
50. Choose the most appropriate answer.
Select the country which is not a member of South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC).
A. Nepal
B. Bhutan
C. Myanmar
D. Bangladesh
Answer: C. Myanmar
Explanation: SAARC members include Nepal, Bhutan, and Bangladesh, but not Myanmar.