REASONING & COMPUTER APTITUDE
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-3): Each of the following consists of a question and some statements are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question:
1. Nine persons – D, T, A, R, B, S, Y, J, and E, consists of a family such that there are three married couples in the family. If so, how is Y related to J?
I. J is the father of A, who is brother of R. D is son of Y, who is married to S.
II. E is mother of R, who is married to A. Y is daughter-in-law of B and D is son of R.
III. T is brother-in-law of B, who is married to J. R is married to A, who is brother of S.
(a) Both statements I and III together are sufficient.
(b) Both statements II and III together are sufficient.
(c) Either statement I and II or II and III together are sufficient.
(d) All statements I, II, and III together are not sufficient.
(e) All statements I, II, and III together are necessary.
2. Seven persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, and G, live in a seven-floored building where the bottom floor is numbered 1 and the top floor is numbered 7. Then E lives on which floor?
I. A lives on fifth floor and D doesn’t live on top floor. There is a gap of two floors between A and F, who lives immediately below B.
II. B lives on third floor and C lives on top floor. There is a gap of two floors between A and F. F lives immediately above G. A lives on an odd-numbered floor.
III. D, who lives on fourth floor, lives exactly between G and C. C lives on top floor.
(a) Both statements I and II together are sufficient.
(b) Both statements II and III together are sufficient.
(c) Either statement I and III or II and III together are sufficient.
(d) All statements I, II, and III together are not sufficient.
(e) All statements I, II, and III together are necessary.
3. Five friends are studying in a college namely A, B, C, D, and E. All of them are sitting in a row facing towards north. Who is sitting three places to the right of D?
Statement I: A is two places to the right of B. B is not adjacent to C or E. The number of persons to the left of E is the same as the number of persons to the right of B.
Statement II: E is sitting to the right of C and none of them is adjacent to D, who is not at the extreme end of the row. The number of persons to the left of E is same as the number of persons to the right of B.
(A) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 4-6): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
‘Q + R’ means ‘Q is father of R.’
‘Q ÷ R’ means ‘R is brother of Q.’
‘Q × R’ means ‘Q is husband of R.’
‘Q − R’ means ‘Q is sister of R.’
4. In the expression Y + W − H + X ÷ Z, how is Z related to Y?
(a) Son
(b) Daughter
(c) Grandson
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
5. Which of the following expressions shows that A is sister of C?
(a) Q + A − O + M ÷ C
(b) Q − M − O ÷ C × A
(c) Q × O − A ÷ C + M
(d) Q − A − O + M ÷ C
(e) None of these
6. Which of the following is true for the given expression?
‘K − Q + P − O + M ÷ N’
(a) K is aunt of M’s father
(b) P is father of N
(c) M is sister of N
(d) Q is father of M
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 7-11): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement:
Input: 97 nosy 21 snow cold 32 asian 46 65 viral 83 high
Step I: 211 97 nosy snow cold asian 46 65 viral 83 high 322
Step II: asian 211 97 nosy snow 46 65 viral 83 high 322 cold
Step III: 463 asian 211 97 nosy snow viral 83 high 322 cold 654
Step IV: high 463 asian 211 97 snow viral 83 322 cold 654 nosy
Step V: 835 high 463 asian 211 snow viral 322 cold 654 nosy 976
Step VI: snow 835 high 463 asian 211 322 cold 654 nosy 976 viral
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: peak 18 utility 76 emerge 27 beautiful 37 51 visible 86 know
7. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?
(a) X
(b) VIII
(c) V
(d) VI
(e) None of these
8. What will the addition of the numbers which is fifth from the left end in step II and 5th from the right end in step IV?
(a) 312
(b) 210
(c) 162
(d) 165
(e) None of these
9. Which of the following would be the difference of the numbers which is 2nd from the left end in step IV and 2nd from the right end in Step II?
(a) 290
(b) 83
(c) 193
(d) 101
(e) None of these
10. Which of the following element will be 6th from the left or 3rd from the right end in step V?
(a) 181
(b) beautiful
(c) 373
(d) know
(e) None of these
11. In Step IV, which of the following word/number would be on 4th position (from the left end)?
(a) visible
(b) 181
(c) 97
(d) utility
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 12-14): In the following questions, the symbols D, ☆, ☐, and # are used with the following meanings as illustrated below. Study the following information and answer the given questions:
Note: The directions which are given indicate exact directions.
- PΔQ – P is in the south direction of Q.
- P☐Q – P is in the north direction of Q.
- P☆Q – P is in the east direction of Q.
- P#Q – P is in the west direction of Q.
- P£QS – P is the mid-point of QS vertically.
Note: For southeast direction it used to be written as PΔ☆Q and so on…
When it is given that the car honks once then it will be considered as the car has taken a left turn, and if it is given that the car honks twice then it will be considered as the car has taken a right turn.
Point A is ☆15m of point B. Point C is☐33m of point A. Point D is☐25m of point B. Point E is #20m of point D. Point G is Δ40m of point E. Point F is ☆40m of point G. Point H£KF. Point K is☐30m of Point F.
12. What distance the car has to travel from point K to reach the airplane which is parked at point C?
(a) 22m
(b) 50m
(c) 43m
(d) 23m
(e) 35m
13. What could the possible shortest route to reach point D from point C?
(a) Started in east till 15km, honks once, cover 8km
(b) Started in west till 15km, honks twice, cover 8km
(c) Started in south till 25km, honks once, cover 8km
(d) Started in north till 5km, honks once, cover 8km
(e) Started in west till 15km, honks once, cover 8km
14. Point K is in which direction from point G?
(a) Δ
(b) ☐#
(c) Δ#
(d) ☐☆
(e) Δ☆
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 15-16):
In the following questions, *, ⊕, $, £, and @ are used according to the following meaning:
- ‘P*Q’ means, ‘P is neither equal nor smaller than Q.’
- ‘P⊕Q’ means, ‘P is not smaller than Q.’
- ‘P$Q’ means, ‘P is neither greater nor smaller than Q.’
- ‘P£Q’ means, ‘P is neither greater nor equal to Q.’
- ‘P@Q’ means, ‘P is not greater than Q.’
Now according to the following statement, if they are true, judge which of their Conclusions I, II, and III follow definitely true.
15. Statements
A*B, B@C, A$D, D£E
Conclusions:
I. E*B
II. C$A
III. D@E
(a) Only I is true
(b) I and II are true
(c) Only III is true
(d) No one is true
(e) None of these
16. Statements
I⊕H, H$T, S£T, S@R
Conclusions:
I. I * T
II. I $ T
III. S * H
(a) All are true
(b) Either I or II is true
(c) Only I is true
(d) Only II is true
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17-18):
In each question given below a statement is followed by three courses of action numbered I, II, and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up, or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing and decide the answer.
17. Statement:
The chairman of the car company announced in the meeting that all trials of its first product, the new car model ‘M,’ are over and the company plans to launch its car in the market after six months.
Courses of action:
I. The network of dealers is to be finalized and all legal, financial, and other matters in this connection will have to be finalized shortly.
II. The company will have to make plans for products other than the car.
III. Material, managerial, and other resources will have to be in fine tune to maintain the production schedule.
(a) I and III only
(b) Only I
(c) All the three
(d) Only II
(e) None of these
18. Statement:
The Company ‘X’ has rejected the first lot of valves supplied by Company ‘A’ and has canceled its entire huge order, quoting the use of inferior-quality material and poor craftsmanship.
Courses of action:
I. The Company ‘A’ needs to investigate the functioning of its purchase, production, and quality control departments.
II. The Company ‘A’ should inspect all the valves rejected by Company ‘X.’
III. The Company ‘A’ should inform Company ‘X’ that steps have been taken for improvement and renegotiate the schedule of supply.
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II
(c) All I, II, and III
(d) II and either I or III
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Q. 19-21):
In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Give answer:
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows.
(d) If neither I nor II follows.
(e) If both I and II follow.
19. Statement:
It has been decided by the Government to withdraw 33% of the subsidy on cooking gas from the beginning of next month. A spokesman of the Government.
Conclusions:
I. People now no more desire or need such subsidy from the government as they can afford the increased price of the cooking gas.
II. The price of the cooking gas will increase at least by 33% from the next month.
20. Statement:
The eligibility for admission to the course is minimum second class master’s degree. However, the candidates who have appeared for the final year examination of master’s degree can also apply.
Conclusions:
I. All candidates who have yet to get their master’s degree will be there in the list of selected candidates.
II. All candidates having obtained second class master’s degree will be there in the list of selected candidates.
21. In this question:
A statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer:
Statement:
The Union Government has decided to withdraw existing tax relief on various small savings schemes in a phased manner to augment its tax collection.
Assumptions:
I. People may still continue to keep money in small savings schemes and also pay taxes.
II. The total tax collection may increase substantially.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit.
(b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either assumption I or II is implicit.
(d) If neither assumption I nor II is implicit.
(e) If both the assumptions I and II are implicit.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22-25): There are two rows given, and to find out the resultant of a particular row we need to follow the following steps:
Step 1: If an even number is followed by an odd number, then the resultant will be the addition of both the numbers.
Step 2: If an odd number is followed by a perfect square, then the resultant will be the difference of that square number and the odd number.
Step 3: If an odd number is followed by another odd number (but not a perfect square), then the resultant will be the addition of both the numbers.
Step 4: If an odd number is followed by an even number (but not a perfect square), then the resultant comes by multiplying the numbers.
Step 5: If an even number is followed by another even number, then the resultant will be the division of the first number by the second number.
22. Find the sum of two rows:
20 4 5
17 12 11
(a) 178
(b) 205
(c) 223
(d) 225
(e) None of these
23. If the sum of the resultants of two rows is 18, then find the value of X.
21 9 6
50 2 X
(a) 16
(b) 12
(c) 9
(d) 15
(e) None of these
24. Find the difference between the resultant of the first and second row.
25 7 16
8 17 12
(a) 300
(b) 298
(c) 302
(d) 287
(e) None of these
25. Find the multiplication of the resultant of the first and second row.
51 21 4
16 17 5
(a) 610
(b) 684
(c) 722
(d) 720
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six students are sitting in a row. Some of them are facing North, and some are facing South. They are of different ages. A student whose age is even-numbered doesn’t sit immediately to the right of the student whose age is even-numbered.
Two students sit between A and E, and one of them sits at an extreme end. Three students are sitting between the students whose age is 16 and 44. A student whose age is 17 sits 2nd to the left of E.
There are as many students sitting between E and the student whose age is 17 as between the students whose ages are 17 and 30. B sits immediately to the right of the student whose age is 17. One student sits between D and F, and neither of them sits at the extreme end. B is older than C. E, whose age is even-numbered, is older than F, who faces North. The student whose age is 22 sits 3rd to the left of the student whose age is 21.
26. How many students are sitting between C and the student whose age is 22?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) Four
(e) None
27. Who among the following sits immediate right of F?
(a) D
(b) Student whose age is 21
(c) E
(d) Student whose age is 44
(e) None of these
28. What is the position of B with respect to the 2nd youngest student?
(a) 2nd to the right
(b) Immediate left
(c) Immediate right
(d) 2nd to the left
(e) None of these
29. What is the age of the student who sits immediate left of D?
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 29
(d) 22
(e) None of these
30. How many students are facing North?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) None
(e) More than three
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are travelling in three different Cars namely X, Y, and Z, but not necessarily in the same order. There are at least two persons in each Car, and each Car has persons of both sexes. Out of eight persons, three are females. All of them like different colours viz., Red, Green, Yellow, Blue, Black, White, Grey, and Purple but not necessarily in the same order.
One female does not like Grey or White colour. D is travelling with G in the Car Z. G likes Black colour. The persons who like Red and Purple colours are travelling in the same Car. E does not like Purple colour, and he is not travelling with H in the same car.
A does not like Purple nor Red colour. H is travelling in the Car Y. B, C, and H are females in the group. B likes Blue colour and travels with the person who likes Black colour. Red and Green colours are liked by female members. The person who is travelling with H likes Grey colour. One of the persons travelling in Car Z likes Yellow colour.
31. In which of the following Cars only two persons are travelling?
(a) Car X
(b) Car Y
(c) Car Z
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
32. The female member who is travelling in Car X likes which colour?
(a) Green
(b) Blue
(c) Yellow
(d) Red
(e) None of these
33. Who among the following likes Yellow colour?
(a) D
(b) E
(c) A
(d) F
(e) None of these
34. Who among the following is/are travelling with female member C?
(a) E and G
(b) A and D
(c) E and F
(d) D and E
(e) F and G
35. Which of the following combinations of Person-Car-Colour is not correct?
(a) C – X – Red
(b) F – X – Purple
(c) G – Z – Black
(d) D – Z – Yellow
(e) E – Y – Grey
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 36-40): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Twelve persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, M, N, O, and P are sitting around a hexagonal table facing to the center, and some of them like different colors but not necessarily in the same order. Six persons sit at the corner sides of the table, and the rest of them sit in the middle side of the table.
O is the immediate neighbor of both E and A, who likes Grey. O does not sit at any corner side of the table. C likes pink and sits 3rd to the left of E. Only two persons sit between B and C. B does not sit on any middle side of the table.
The person who likes Green sits exactly between A and B. G sits 3rd to the right of the one who likes Green. P is an immediate neighbor of N, who faces D. M sits 3rd to the right of D. The persons who like Black and Green sit opposite to each other. The one who likes Blue sits 4th to the left of the one who likes Black. The one who likes White sits 4th to the left of F, who does not like Green. O does not like the white color.
36. How many persons sit between H and M, when counted to the left of M?
(a) Seven
(b) Eight
(c) Four
(d) Three
(e) More than seven
37. Who among the following faces O?
(a) P
(b) H
(c) M
(d) G
(e) B
38. Who among the following sits immediate to the right of the one who likes Green?
(a) H
(b) D
(c) B
(d) O
(e) F
39. What is the position of G with respect to F?
(a) 4th to the right
(b) 4th to the left
(c) 7th to the left
(d) 6th to the right
(e) Both (a) and (b)
40. Which of the following statement is true as per the given information?
I. H likes Green.
II. E sits 2nd to the left of A.
III. P sits opposite to F.
(a) Both I and III
(b) Both I and II
(c) Only II
(d) Both II and III
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 41-45): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Twelve persons are born on the three different dates 7, 14, 23 of four different months viz. January, March, June, and November. Only one person is born on one date of a month. N was born on 7 of a month having 30 days. Only three persons were born between N and H. H does not born on an even date of a month. As many persons born after H as born before A. Five persons born between A and D. Only two persons born between F and E. P born on an even date but immediately after K. Six persons born between P and B. E born immediately before B. M born on an even date after L but before G.
41. How many persons born between P and F?
(a) Two
(b) More than three
(c) Three
(d) One
(e) None
42. Who among the following was born immediately before G?
(a) K
(b) L
(c) N
(d) M
(e) None of these
43. H was born on which of the following day?
(a) 23 March
(b) 14 January
(c) 7 June
(d) 23 January
(e) None of these
44. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) N and G both were born in the same month
(b) F was born on an odd date
(c) G was born on 7th
(d) B was born on 23rd
(e) None is true
45. Who among the following was born just after F?
(a) D
(b) L
(c) N
(d) B
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 46-50): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
Ten boxes are placed in the following manner one above the other. Only two boxes are kept between Box G and Box I. G and H are not in the same row. More than two boxes are between E and H. Box F is immediately to the left of Box A. Box I is immediately to the right of Box J, who is in an odd-numbered row. Box C is just above Box F. Box B is in an odd-numbered row. Box J is kept just above Box D.
46. How many boxes are between Box J and Box F?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
47. Which box is kept immediately above Box E?
(a) B
(b) F
(c) D
(d) C
(e) No box
48. How many boxes are kept to the right of Box B in the same row?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
49. Which of the following represents the boxes kept exactly one above the other?
(a) B, J, D, H
(b) J, B
(c) C, A, J
(d) E, I, H
(e) None of these
50. How many boxes are between Box I and Box C?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
51. In the given question, find the value of (R)−(P)×(Q)(R) – (P) \times (Q)(R)−(P)×(Q)?
Series I: 5, 6, 13, 40, 161, 806
Series II: 2, (P), (Q), (R)
(a) 2
(b) 45
(c) 0
(d) -1
(e) 1
52. Average weight of 5 students in the class increases by 4 kg when the weight of the teacher is also included. If the sum of average weights of 5 students and a teacher is 104 kg, find the age of the teacher?
(a) 84 kg
(b) 79 kg
(c) 74 kg
(d) 64 kg
(e) 69 kg
53. Average age of A, B, and C is 20 years. Average age of B and C was 12 years when A was born. Find the age of C after 6 years?
(a) 39 years
(b) 29 years
(c) 33 years
(d) 27 years
(e) CND
54. A two-digit number decreases by 18 when its both digits written in reverse order. If the unit digit of the original number is equal to the unit digit of $22^6$, find the product of both digits of the number?
(a) 32
(b) 8
(c) 15
(d) 24
(e) 36
55.
I. $x^2 – px + q = 0$
II. $ y^2 – (p – 2)y + (q – 4) = 0$
Roots of equation I are mmm and 3, and roots of equation II are mmm and 1.
Find the value of (q − p)?
(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
(e) CND
56.
I. $x^2 – px + q = 0$
II. $ y^2 – (p – 2)y + (q – 4) = 0$
Roots of equation I are mmm and 3, and roots of equation II is (m and 1).
Which of the following statements will be TRUE for Equation (z^2 – 7z + 10 = 0)
A. Value of mmm is smaller than the largest root of the equation.
B. Difference between qqq and ppp is lesser than both the roots of the equation.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) Both are not true
(e) Can’t say
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 57-58):
50 students are studying at least one of the subjects from Hindi, Science, and Maths. None of the students is studying Science and Maths both (not Hindi). Sum of students who study only Maths and who study only Hindi is 11.
4 students study all three subjects. Students who study Science and Hindi but not Maths is three times the students who study all three subjects. 66 (2/3)% of students study Maths and Hindi but not Science as compared to students who study Science and Hindi but not Maths. Students who like only Hindi are 40% of students who study only Science.
57. Sum of the students who didn’t study Maths and who didn’t study Science?
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 8
(e) 12
58. Ratio of students who study all three subjects and student only two subjects?
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 1 : 5
(d) 4 : 5
(e) 1 : 1
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 59-62): Three vessels A, B, and C have mixtures of Juice, Water, and Milk.
Vessel A: 84 litres of water is there in the vessel.
Vessel B: Ratio between water and milk is 2 : 1, and the ratio of Juice and water is 3 : 2. Total quantity in vessel B is 150 litres.
Vessel C: Milk is 75 litres, which is 25% more than water. Juice in vessel C is 40% less than water in vessel B. Milk in vessel A is 2% less than the total quantity of milk in vessels B and C. Juice in vessel A is 16.66% more than water in vessel C.
59. If 36 litres of mixture is removed from vessel A, So find the ratio of juice in vessel A to milk in vessel C?
(a) 5 : 6
(b) 4 : 5
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 11 : 25
(e) None
60. If 36 litre mixture from vessel B is taken out and 15 litre Juice and 10 litre of water is added in the remaining mixture, so find the percentage of milk in the newly formed mixture?
(a) 14%
(b) 18%
(c) 22%
(d) 20%
(e) 26%
61. Total population of two villages A and B is in the ratio of 3 : 2. If the ratio of male and female in village A is X : Y and that of Y : X in village B. If the male in village A is 880 more than the female in village B and the female in village A is 120 more than the male in village A. Find the male in village B?
(a) 1480
(b) 1840
(c) 2240
(d) 1920
(e) None of these
62. A boat covers a certain distance upstream in 6 hrs 2 min and comes back to the starting point with the current in 2 hrs 66 min. If the boat’s upstream speed is 15.05 km/hr, find the distance travelled by the boat downstream in 7 hrs?
(a) 140 km
(b) 210 km
(c) 175 km
(d) 280 km
(e) 245 km
63. A bag has 8 red balls, x Green balls, and y Blue balls. If the probability of picking one Green ball and the probability of picking one Blue ball is equal, and the probability of picking one red ball is 1/2. Find the number of blue balls.
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 4
(e) None
64. An article is marked up by P% above the cost price. If the shopkeeper offers a discount of 25% and still earns a profit of 35%, to earn a profit of 71%, how much discount should be offered by the shopkeeper?
(a) 20%
(b) 4%
(c) 10%
(d) 5%
(e) 6%
65. A car X starts from point A at 8 a.m. towards point B, and after one hour another car Y starts from point B towards point A. They both meet at 11 a.m., and their speed for the entire journey was 24 km/hr and 36 km/hr, respectively. Find the distance between point A and B.
(a) 144 km
(b) 192 km
(c) 176 km
(d) 128 km
(e) 150 km
66. X men can finish a work in Y days. 0.9X women can finish 1/3rd of the same work in (Y − 8) days. If 0.8X women can complete 1/3rd work in 36 days, find 0.5X men can finish one-fourth of the work in how many days?
(a) 30 days
(b) 40 days
(c) 20 days
(d) 25 days
(e) 36 days
67. Pipe A can fill half of the tank in 6 hr 5 min. Pipe B can fill the same tank completely in 18 hr 5 min, and pipe C can empty the filled tank in 9 hrs. If all pipes are opened simultaneously, then in how much time will 80% of the tank be filled? (Approx.)
(a) 25 hrs
(b) 32 hrs
(c) 22 hrs
(d) 29 hrs
(e) 39 hrs
68. A man spends 25% of his monthly salary on Rent and 32% on Groceries. The remaining monthly salary he invests in the ratio of 11 : 5 in Mutual Funds and Fixed Deposits. If the difference between his yearly mutual funds and fixed deposit amounts is ₹77400, then find the amount he spends monthly on grocery products.
(a) ₹6400
(b) ₹9600
(c) ₹11200
(d) ₹12800
(e) None
69. Gauri, Sajjan, and Falguni invest in a business. Gauri invests twice as compare to Sajjan, and Falguni invests 90% more than Gauri’s investment. If all invest for the same time, find the profit share of Gauri, out of a total profit of ₹2109.
(a) ₹660
(b) ₹620
(c) ₹560
(d) ₹720
(e) None
70. A person took a loan of ₹1500 from an investor at 20% p.a. on compound interest for 2 years. But he paid only 80% of the amount after 2 years, and the investor put some penalty on the remaining amount. He paid ₹520 with the penalty amount after some time. So, find the value of the penalty amount?
(a) ₹66
(b) ₹88
(c) ₹68
(d) ₹44
(e) ₹98
71. A man invests ₹X in a scheme at 12% rate of interest for 8 years. After 8 years, he reinvests the amount received at the same time and same rate. If the interest received from reinvestment is ₹5730.40 more than ₹X, find the value of X.
(a) ₹5000
(b) ₹6000
(c) ₹5500
(d) ₹6500
(e) ₹7500
72. A and B invest in a business in the ratio of 2 : 3. B left the business after X months. C joined the business with twice the investment as compared to that of B. C invested for 2 months more than B. After a year, C received 5/9th share of the total profit. Find the time for which B was there in the business.
(a) 6 months
(b) 9 months
(c) 8 months
(d) 4 months
(e) 7 months
DIRECTIONS (Qs 73-77): There are two equations given below in the following questions. Solve them and choose the appropriate option.
I. $2^{3x + y} = \sqrt{32}$
II. $2^{2x + \frac{3y}{2}} = \sqrt{32}$
73.
Quantity I: x + y
Quantity II: 2
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity II > Quantity I
(c) Quantity II ≥ Quantity I
(d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(e) Relation can’t be established
74.
Quantity I: x(2x – 1) = 3
Quantity II: $ y^2 = \sqrt{625}$
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity II > Quantity I
(c) Quantity II ≥ Quantity I
(d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(e) Relation can’t be established
75. The ratio of the area of a circle and a rectangle is 11 : 15. If the breadth of the rectangle is twice the radius of the circle, and the sum of the length and breadth of the rectangle is 58 cm:
Quantity I: $600 cm^2$
Quantity II: Area of the Rectangle
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity II > Quantity I
(c) Quantity II ≥ Quantity I
(d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(e) Relation can’t be established
76. A’s age x years ago is equal to B’s age after x years. The present age of C is twice the present age of B. The age of C before x years is equal to A’s age after 2x years.
Quantity I: 6 years
Quantity II: Difference between the present ages of A and C
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity II > Quantity I
(c) Quantity II ≥ Quantity I
(d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(e) Relation can’t be established
77. If a person offers the same discount percentage on two articles A and B. He marked them up by 40% and 15%, respectively, above the cost price. If the selling price of both articles is ₹280 and ₹276, respectively:
Quantity I: Cost of Article X
Quantity II: Marked price of Article Y
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity II > Quantity I
(c) Quantity II ≥ Quantity I
(d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(e) Relation can’t be established
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 78–82): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Monthly Rent (in ₹ thousand) at five different places in six different years.
| Years | Place | ||||
| Churchgate | Dadar | Kandivali | Borivali | Virar | |
| 2005 | 5.3 | 3.8 | 1.5 | 2.7 | 1.1 |
| 2006 | 12.5 | 8.3 | 3.4 | 4.8 | 2.1 |
| 2007 | 16.7 | 11.7 | 5.5 | 6.6 | 1.8 |
| 2008 | 20.9 | 13.6 | 9.8 | 12.7 | 3.6 |
| 2009 | 25.8 | 14.5 | 11.5 | 14.1 | 5.5 |
| 2010 | 30.3 | 20.9 | 15.6 | 15.9 | 7.8 |
78. In which place did the monthly rent not increase consistently from year 2005 to 2010?
(a) Churchgate
(b) Dadar
(c) Kandivali
(d) Borivali
(e) Virar
79. In which year at Churchgate, the monthly rent increased more than 100 percent from the previous year?
(a) 2006
(b) 2007
(c) 2008
(d) 2009
(e) 2010
80. What was the difference between the monthly rent at Dadar in the year 2009 and Borivali in the year 2007?
(a) ₹7,600
(b) ₹7,900
(c) ₹8,100
(d) ₹8,600
(e) None of these
81. Monthly rent at Kandivali in the year 2008 was approximately what percent of the total monthly rent at Virar over all the years together?
(a) 30
(b) 33
(c) 38
(d) 42
(e) 45
82. Which city was most expensive in terms of rent?
(a) Churchgate
(b) Dadar
(c) Kandivali
(d) Borivali
(e) Virar
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 83–87): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Percentage of Different Types of Employees in an Organization
Total Employees = 7000
| Employee | Out of these Direct | Percent of Promotees |
| Steno | 30 | 70 |
| Assistant | 40 | 60 |
| Supervisor | 50 | 50 |
| Clerk I | 90 | 10 |
| Clerk II | 30 | 70 |
| Officer I | 90 | 10 |
| Officer II | 70 | 30 |
83. What is the difference in direct recruit and promotee assistants?
(a) 210
(b) 280
(c) 180
(d) 110
(e) None of these
84. The promotee Clerk I is approximately what percent of that of direct recruit Clerk I?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 10.50
(e) 9.75
85. How many employees are supervisors?
(a) 1050
(b) 1019
(c) 1109
(d) 1290
(e) None of these
86. How many total direct recruits among all types of employees are there?
(a) 4000
(b) 3885
(c) 3000
(d) 3115
(e) None of these
87. Which type of employees has the maximum number of direct recruits?
(a) Clerk I and Officer I
(b) Officer I
(c) Clerk I
(d) Clerk II
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 88–92): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Percentage of employees in different departments of a company
Total Number of Employees = 4500
88. What is the total number of males from Design, Customer Relation, and HR departments together?
(a) 1550
(b) 1510
(c) 1540
(d) 1580
(e) None of these
89. What is the ratio of the number of males in the HR department to the number of males in the Accounts department, respectively?
(a) 3 : 17
(b) 4 : 15
(c) 2 : 15
(d) 2 : 13
(e) None of these
90. The number of females in the Marketing department are approximately what percent of the total employees in Marketing and Customer Relation departments together?
(a) 26
(b) 36
(c) 6
(d) 46
(e) 16
91. What is the respective ratio of the number of employees in the Administrative department to the number of males in the same department?
(a) 9 : 4
(b) 8 : 3
(c) 7 : 2
(d) 8 : 5
(e) None of these
92. The total number of females are what percent of the total number of males in the organization?
(a) 90
(b) 70
(c) 80
(d) 60
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 93–97): Study the following profile of parliament carefully and answer the questions given below it.
PROFILE OF PARLIAMENT IN YEAR XXXX
Total members in Parliament = 640
(492 from Lok Sabha and 150 from Rajya Sabha)
93. What is the approximate percentage of the Muslim members in the Lok Sabha?
(a) 9%
(b) 11%
(c) 13%
(d) 14%
(e) 7%
94. In the Rajya Sabha, if 30 male members were replaced by 30 female members, then what would be the ratio of male members to female members?
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 2 : 3
(e) 2 : 1
95. What percentage of members in parliament are businessmen?
(a) 8%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 18%
(e) 10%
96. If all the ‘others’ of Lok Sabha join the party ‘B,’ then what will be the ratio of the members of party ‘A’ to the members of party ‘B’?
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 6 : 5
(c) 4 : 3
(d) 7 : 6
(e) 4 : 5
97. Out of the total members of party ‘B’ in parliament, what percentage of the members belong to Rajya Sabha?
(a) 30%
(b) 35%
(c) 25%
(d) 20%
(e) 15%
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 98–100): Study the following pie-chart and answer the questions given below.
98. HBO and Star Plus have ______ viewers.
(a) 160
(b) 340
(c) 320
(d) 480
(e) None of these
99. Which of the following represents the ratio of the number of viewers of BBC to the number of viewers of Neo Sports?
(a) 1 : 7
(b) 2 : 5
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 4 : 7
(e) None of these
100. The number of viewers of Star Plus forms what percentage of the number of viewers of NDTV?
(a) 80%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 60%
(e) None of these
GENERAL ENGLISH
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 101–110): Read the given passages and answer the following questions:
Passage 1
A new sub-genre of science fiction leans on the expertise of biologists and ecologists to imagine a scientifically plausible future Earth. Sci-fi is full of lasers and spaceflight, holograms and super soldiers, all varying in their believability. In recent years, works of fiction grappling with a hefty dose of environmental degradation and climate change have hit the mainstream.
Bestsellers like Barbara Kingsolver’s Flight Behavior (2012), which tells the story of how a rural town responds to the arrival of an unexpected roost of monarch butterflies (and the scientists who come to study them), and Richard Powers’ The Overstory (2018), which weaves together narratives of nine characters whose connections with trees bring them together to protect a forest from destruction, have captured the attention of critics and readers alike.
Just last month, Jeff VanderMeer released his new eco-thriller Hummingbird Salamander, a suspenseful story that hinges on species loss and eco-terrorism in a very-near future. The author, whose award-winning 2014 book Annihilation was adapted into a major motion picture, sought out Meghan Brown, a biologist at Hobart and William Smith Colleges in upstate New York, as a science advisor. Brown created the fictional—but biologically plausible—bird and amphibian species whose identity the protagonist chases throughout the story.
“It’s part of a pattern,” says Adeline Johns-Putra, a literary scholar at Xi an Jiao tong-Liverpool University in Suzhou, China, who published the monograph Climate Change and the Contemporary Novel and has edited multiple books on climate fiction. “It’s a feedback loop, as [these books] feed into our awareness and that feeds into our demand to read these books.”
Fiction has proven to be an important medium for increasing a reader’s empathy for others and for helping people make sense of otherwise inaccessible data and statistics. So this new sub-genre raises the question: When it comes to understanding our planet and its future, can novelists reach people in ways that scientists cannot?
The idea that Earth’s environment might be different in the future predates understanding of modern human impacts. H.G. Wells was already dreaming up future Earth environments by the time he wrote The Time Machine in 1895. But it wasn’t until the 1960s that authors would begin addressing themes of human-caused environmental degradation in their works of fiction.
Climate change wouldn’t enter the scene for another few decades. Octavia Butler’s 1993 Parable of the Sower, the story follows a teenage girl seeking freedom from her deteriorating community in a future destabilized by climate change. Part of the reason it’s held up so well is that so many of Butler’s predictions have come true. But she wasn’t a fortune teller, she just did her homework.
“If you look in [Butler’s] archive, there are so many newspaper clippings talking about things like drought in California in the 80s, and how Reagan-era gutting of environmental protections were going to have such a massive impact on the climate of California,” says Ted Howell, a literary scholar and lecturer at Rowan University in New Jersey who teaches a class on climate fiction. “One thing she envisioned was a lot more drought and a lot more fires. Now here we are, only three years from the future date she picks in Parable of the Sower, 2024, and we live in a world in which California has a lot more drought and a lot more fires.
Not all authors will go to such lengths to get the details right, and for many works of fiction, that doesn’t matter. J.R.R. Tolkien’s Middle Earth gave us an encyclopedia-worth of creatures and plants, each with their own consistent ecologies that have been delighting fans since 1937. The same might be said for the Star Wars universe, with its womp rats and sarlaccs, or Harry Potter’s world of fantastic beasts.
Although appreciation for these fictional ecologies could, in theory, be a stepping stone for readers to pay attention to their own environments, there’s something to be said for giving readers a look at real, Earthly nature and what threatens it.
“There’s all this amazing complexity and beauty [in nature], and it is important to get it right and to show it,” says VanderMeer. “Because that’s where the beauty lives—in the details of these things.”
To create the biologically plausible, but otherwise fictional, species for Hummingbird Salamander, Brown pieced together components from real species. She wrote up detailed descriptions of the hummingbird and salamander species that resemble entries in a guidebook, summarizing their morphology, habitat, life cycle, interesting characteristics, and even threats.
“What was important to me about being accurate was that there was an intentionality about the link between the environment of the organisms that I was creating and their behavioral traits and their physical traits,” explains Brown.
“The creatures are fictional, but their life cycles were essentially checked out and marked up and taken from other solutions that Earth has already come up with for how species exist in their environment.”
Countless authors have taken steps to ensure the accuracy of their depictions of science and nature. “There’s a whole tradition in sci-fi, sometimes we call it hard science fiction, that is extremely research-heavy,” says Howell.
Even when a storyline is obviously fictional, the audience can still be impacted in real, detrimental ways. “It has the effect of making people not understand the science of what’s actually possible,” says Howell. “I do think authors have some responsibility to be accurate, or if they’re not, to make it clear that it’s not accurate.”
But fiction can do one thing that nonfiction cannot: Take place in the future.
“The thing I think we [fiction writers] can tell you about the future the most is how it’s going to viscerally surround you,” says VanderMeer. “More than the actual accuracy of the details, What I’m mostly concerned about is what is it like to live in a particular moment.”
So as much as authors might want to be sure their scientific details aren’t misleading, it’s also true that readers typically aren’t reading a novel for its facts. That doesn’t mean a story can’t be used as a tool to further people’s understanding of scientific facts.
“When we typically look at climate forecasting, there’s a lot of excellent science and data crunching behind it, but it usually gets depicted numerically,” Howell says. “We say things like, the future will be 2.4 degrees Celsius warmer, the sea level will be 3.6 meters higher … but what fiction can do is give people a sense of what it would actually look like to live in such a world that’s been made hotter, or where the weather is more extreme.”
Fiction, explains Howell, can give you the perspective of a person who is living in that radically changed world.
One study published in the journal Environmental Communication in September found that reading climate fiction significantly increased readers’ beliefs that climate change is human-caused, and that it will lead to droughts, floods, poverty, and displacement of communities. But these effects were fleeting, only lasting for about a month. “It’s very unlikely that a person could read one work of fiction and then be like, ‘oh, well my understanding of climate science issues has now radically changed,’” Howell says.
Still, the stories we have at the forefront of our minds can start conversations. The Yale Program on Climate Change Communication reported in 2016 that more than half of Americans who think climate change is important “rarely” or “never” talk about it with friends or family. One in four Americans never hear global warming discussed. Reading books where the topic at least comes up can only help. Climate change is such an “enormous, wicked problem,” adds Brady, that we need a lot of pathways to conversations about it. “While novels may not change the world, they at least offer one entry point into that conversation, and I think the more entry points we have into it, the better,” says Amy Brady, the executive director of Orion Magazine.
101. “It’s part of a pattern” says…
(a) Adeline Johns-Putra
(b) William Smith
(c) Barbara Kingsolver
(d) Jeff VanderMeer
102. Choose the appropriate meaning of the statement “But fiction can do one thing that nonfiction cannot: Take place in the future.” Mean in the passage.
(a) The thing fiction writers can tell you about the future the most is how it’s going to viscerally surround you.
(b) Actual concern is the accuracy of the details.
(c) Authors might want to be sure their scientific details aren’t misleading.
(d) Give people a sense of what it would actually look like to live in such a world that’s been made hotter, or where the weather is more extreme.
103. “The thing I think we [fiction writers] can tell you about the future the most is how it’s going to viscerally surround you,” who says this?
(a) H.G. Wells
(b) Octavia Butler
(c) Jeff VanderMeer
(d) William Smith
104. What does the word “Radical” mean?
(a) Unconventional but slight shift in the situation
(b) Very great; complete changes in something
(c) Orthodox outlook
(d) None of the above
105. The story of how a rural town responds to the arrival of an unexpected roost of monarch butterflies….is written by…?
(a) Suzhou
(b) H.G. Wells
(c) Octavia Butler
(d) Barbara Kingsolver
106. What does the phrase “It’s part of a pattern” mean in the passage?
(a) These books feed into our awareness and that feeds into our demand to read these books.
(b) Human-caused environmental degradation.
(c) Climate science issues have now radically changed.
(d) The creatures are fictional, but their life cycles were essentially checked out and marked up and taken from other solutions that Earth has already come up with for how species exist in their environment.
107. What question does this new sub-genre raise?
(a) Whose connections with trees bring them together to protect a forest from destruction.
(b) Not all authors will go to such lengths to get the details right, and for many works of fiction, that doesn’t matter.
(c) When it comes to understanding our planet and its future, can novelists reach people in ways that scientists cannot?
(d) Whose award-winning 2014 book Annihilation was adapted into a major motion picture.
108. “When we typically look at climate forecasting, there’s a lot of excellent science and data crunching behind it, but it usually gets depicted numerically,” says…
(a) Adeline Johns-Putra
(b) Howell
(c) Amy Brady
(d) VanderMeer
109. “When we typically look at climate forecasting, there’s a lot of excellent science and data crunching behind it, but it usually gets depicted numerically,” when simplified would mean, in the passage….
(a) That we say things like, the future will be 2.4 degrees Celsius warmer, the sea level will be 3.6 meters higher
(b) While novels may not change the world, they at least offer one entry point into that conversation, and I think the more entry points we have into it, the better,
(c) do is give people a sense of what it would actually look like to live in such a world
(d) none of the above
110. Where was the study that “climate change is human-caused” published?
(a) Hummingbird Salamander
(b) Climate Change and the Contemporary
(c) Orion Magazine
(d) Environmental Communication
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 111-120): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
In Economics, the term recession generally describes the reduction of a country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for at least two quarters. A recession is …(111)… by rising unemployment, increase in government borrowing, …(112)…, of share and stock prices, and falling investment. All of these characteristics have effects on people. Some recessions have been anticipated by stock market declines. The real-estate market also usually …(113)… before a recession. During an economic decline, high …(114)… stocks such as financial services, pharmaceuticals and tobacco …(115)… to hold up better. However, when the economy starts to recover growth, stocks tend to recover faster. There is significant disagreement about how health care and utilities tend to …(116)…. In 2008, an economic recession was suggested by several important indicators of economic downturn. These …(117)… high oil prices, which led to …(118)… high food prices due to a dependence of food production on petroleum, as well as using food crop products such as ethanol and biodiesel as an …(119)… to petroleum; and global inflation; a substantial credit crisis investment blanks as well …(120)… as commercial banks in various, and signs of contemporaneous economic downturns in major economies of the world, a global recession.
111.
(A) imagined
(B) depict
(C) shown
(D) visualized
(E) characterized
112.
(A) increase
(B) variance
(C) more
(D) decrease
(E) abundance
113.
(A) weakens
(B) initiates
(C) awakens
(D) strengthens
(E) volatile
114.
(A) maintained
(B) yield
(C) heavy
(D) result
(E) payment
115.
(A) are
(B) want
(C) tend
(D) made
(E) yearn
116.
(A) distribute
(B) recover
(C) wait
(D) increased
(E) fight
117.
(A) meant
(B) show
(C) numbered
(D) included
(E) encompass
118.
(A) fearful
(B) dangerous
(C) abnormally
(D) healthy
(E) nutritious
119.
(A) alternative
(B) variant
(C) substitute
(D) element
(E) integral
120.
(A) wealthy
(B) costly
(C) stand
(D) created
(E) established
DOUBLE FILLERS
DIRECTIONS: A sentence with two blanks is given, followed by five options. The correct answer must fill both the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully and grammatically correct.
121. In the short panel discussion at the end of the conference, an ____________ voice asked whether digital architecture is really ____________, in a social and political sense.
(a) afraid, stringent
(b) shrieky, profound
(c) intrepid, radical
(d) cowardly, draconian
(e) plucky, lament
DIRECTIONS: A sentence with two blanks is given, followed by five options. The correct answer must fill both the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully and grammatically correct.
122. While conducting the research into the rationale behind the country’s propagandizing, the scholars ___________ that the country’s ___________ elite’s anxiety to present themselves as a homogeneous group was, ironically, a byproduct of their nation’s Mediterranean geography.
(a) Determined
(b) Lettered
(c) Grave
(d) Read
(e) None of the above
123. The activities approved for toting up a teacher’s __________ performance indicator are many, __________ beyond teaching and research.
(a) popularity, training
(b) academic, extending
(c) cuteness, going
(d) strength, power
(e) happiness, great
124.
(A) A recent report from checkpoint security notes that ransomware attacks against healthcare orgs have jumped about 45% since early November.
(B) That followed an alarming 71% spike in October.
(C) In the spring of last year, a number of criminal hacker crews pledged to leave hospitals, nursing homes, and other healthcare entities alone until the Covid-19 pandemic passed.
(D) Checkpoint notes that healthcare entities were actually the number one target of ransomware attacks that month.
(E) At least one ransomware gang saw that as an opportunity.
(a) AECDB
(b) DEBAC
(c) BAEDC
(d) CEABD
DIRECTIONS: (Qs. 125-129): Rearrange the following eight sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F), (G) and (H) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) But I always felt somewhere in my mind that I loved acting.
(B) He never wanted me to be an actor, as he didn’t look upon theatre or acting as respectable vocation.
(C) Firstly, there was no tradition of theatre in my family.
(D) I am talking specifically of acting, not theatre in general.
(E) My parents were old-fashioned.
(F) I will answer all your queries a little elaborately.
(G) Let alone theater, arts in general had no place of respect in my family.
(H) My father was a government servant.
125. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence?
(a) G
(b) C
(c) H
(d) D
(e) F
126. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) C
(e) F
127. Which of the following will be the SIXTH sentence?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) A
(d) D
(e) E
128. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence?
(a) D
(b) E
(c) A
(d) B
(e) G
129. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence?
(a) H
(b) E
(c) G
(d) C
(e) A
DIRECTION: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will be your answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.
130. A person driven by (1) greed and envious, loses (2) the ability to see (3) things as they are. (4)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) No error
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 131–135): In the following questions a sentence is given, some parts of the sentence are given in bold which may have grammatical or spelling error or they may be contextually incorrect. Two columns (A) and (B) are given, column (A) consists of bold parts of the sentence and column (B) consists of the appropriate replacement for the bold parts. Match the correct replacements. If the sentence is correct mark no error as your answer.
131. The NCLT is the right body to resolve corporate insolvency and the court did the right thing to acquire of a resolution process that it had took the account for of the homebuyers’ interest, now that Parliament has amended the law to incorporate homebuyers as financial creditors.
| Column A | Column B |
| (A) to resolve corporate insolvency | (i) resolving the corporate insolvency |
| (B) to acquire | (ii) to let go |
| (C) took the account for | (iii) taken up on account |
| (D) has amended the law | (iv) has been amended the law |
(a) D-iv and B-ii
(b) B-ii and C-iii
(c) A-i and B-ii
(d) None of the given options are correct
(e) no error
132. Some recent structural reform, such as the implementation of the goods and services tax (GST) and insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). The removal of Restriction of foreign direct investment and improvement in the ease of doing business, will help improve economic activity.
| Column A | Column B |
| (A) a recent structural reform | (i) the recent structural reforms |
| (B) within the liberalization | (ii) along with liberalization |
| (C) in the ease of doing business | (iii) in the easy business doing |
| (D) improve economic activity | (iv) to be improved economic activity |
(a) D-iv and B-ii
(b) B-ii and C-iii
(c) A-i and B-ii
(d) None of the given options are correct
(e) No error
133. Match the column:
| Column A | Column B |
| A. Cry Wolf | 1. A rare event. |
| B. Cock and bull story | 2. Intentionally raise a false alarm. |
| C. Blue moon | 3. A large number of people either falling ill or dying. |
| D. Dropping like flees | 4. An unbelievable tale. |
(a) A3, B4, C2, D3
(b) A2, B4, C1, D3
(c) A1, B2, C3, D4
(d) A3, B1, C2, D4
134. In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose the option “No improvement.”
After plunge for a life-time low of 74.48 against the US dollar, the rupee is gradually recovering. However, year to date, the Indian currency is still down by around 10% against the greenback.
(A) Against plunging to
(B) After a plunge to
(C) Before plunge to
(D) After plunging to
(a) Both A and C
(b) Only B
(c) Only A
(d) Both B and D
(e) No improvement
DIRECTIONS: Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows.
As more cities are going under lockdowns, nonessential businesses are being ordered to close, and customers are generally avoiding public places. Limiting shopping for all but necessary essentials is becoming a new normal. Brands are having to adapt and be flexible to meet changing needs. As people have embraced social distancing as a way to slow the spread of the pandemic, there has naturally been a drop-off in brick-and-mortar shopping. That would seem to mean there would likely be an increase in online shopping as people turn to e-commerce to purchase the items they might have otherwise purchased in person. No doubt, online retail has played a huge role in keeping the U.S. economy from suffering even greater damage during the pandemic.
135. Which of the following word/phrase can replace the highlighted phrase in the passage? Drop off
(a) Rachet down
(b) Distend
(c) Taper off
(d) Both A and C
(e) All A, B, and C
136. In the following question, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose the option ‘No improvement.’
The government had undertaken appropriate measures to curb the rising population in the country.
(A) Had been to undertake
(B) Has been undertaking
(C) Had undertaken
(D) Would undertaking
(a) Both A and D
(b) Only C
(c) Both B and C
(d) Only A
(e) No improvement
137. Due to his alcoholism and vicious temper, the servants were always left to face the brunt of his terrifying antics.
(a) left to serve the brunt of his terrifying antics.
(b) left to hold the brunt of his terrifying antics.
(c) left to bear the brunt of his terrifying antics.
(d) left to feel the brunt of his terrifying antics.
(e) No correction required.
138. It is commendable that wing commander Abhinandan held over crucial information even under situations of extreme stress.
(a) held up over crucially information
(b) held back crucial information
(c) held behind crucial information
(d) hold out crucial informations
(e) No correction required.
139. Direction: Five statements, labelled A, B, C, D, and E are given. Among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
A. Dealers play a vital role in helping a company build and maintain close relationships with customers and gain insights into how they can improve their products and services to fulfill customer needs.
B. Dealers, who are long-established members of a company, can get close to customers.
C. To tap the full potential of the dealers, the company must forge extremely close ties with them and integrate them into critical business systems.
D. A company’s loyalty can be achieved through customer loyalty.
E. When treated this way, dealers can serve as a source of market intelligence.
(a) B and C
(b) Only C
(c) Only B
(d) None of these
(e) Only A
140. Direction: In the given question, a theme followed by three passages is given. Determine which passage is based on the given theme and mark it as your option. More than one passage can be based on the given theme.
(A) Ragging, which was introduced as the traditional form of welcoming students, has changed into a dreadful affair. As a result, many students give up their studies and go back home, some lose their mental balance, and some are seriously injured. Strict measures should be passed by the government to thwart such ragging, and anybody found guilty of indulging in any form of ragging should be strictly dealt with.
(B) Students should be sensitized to the adverse effect of ragging as once a harmless interaction between seniors and freshers degenerated into dangerous entertainment. Three years’ imprisonment or a fine of Rs 25,000 has been imposed to check this hooliganism in college and university. This punishment may serve as a deterrent so as not to allow things to go out of hand.
(C) There was a time when most of the colleges were affected by the menacing consequences of ragging, but now it is not the case. Ragging has not been so pernicious for a long time. It is these couple of years where it becomes worse. Ragging will automatically gradually lose its significance; it is unnecessarily overrated.
(a) Only C
(b) Both A and B
(c) Both A and C
(d) All A, B, C
(e) None of the above
GENERAL/FINANCIAL AWARENESS
141. Which bank is included in the PCA framework?
(a) SBI
(b) RBI
(c) Commercial Banks
(d) NABARD
(e) None of the above
142. What is the full form of USSD?
(a) Unstructured Supplementary Service Data
(b) Unparalleled Service Supplement Disable
(c) Undercover Supplementary Source of Data
(d) Undiscovered Services of Sources Drag
(e) None of the above
143. Which of the following two beaches recently got Blue Flag Certification?
(a) Golden Beach (Odisha) and Shivrajpur Beach (Gujarat)
(b) Kappad Beach (Kerala) and Ghoghla Beach (Diu)
(c) Kasargod Beach (Karnataka) and Radhanagar Beach (Andaman & Nicobar Islands)
(d) Kovalam Beach in Kerala and Eden Beach in Puducherry
(e) Rushikonda Beach (Andhra Pradesh) and Padubidri Beach (Karnataka)
144. Gareeb Kalyan Yojana extension period:
(a) December 2021 till March 2022
(b) January 2024 till March 2025
(c) January 2023 till March 2025
(d) December 2022 till March 2023
(e) January 2022 till March 2023
145. Spinny: Which type of e-marketplace? Buy and Sell Used Cars
(a) Buy and Sell Used Cars
(b) Only sell cars
(c) Only buy cars
(d) Buy and sell mobiles
(e) None of the above
146. World Bank and SBI collaboration for electric vehicle with:
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of External Affairs
(d) DRDO
(e) None of the above
147. Paytm Payments Bank came under which Act/Schedule:
(a) 2nd Schedule of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(b) 3rd Schedule of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(c) 5th Schedule of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(d) 7th Schedule of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(e) None of the above
148. ADB gave loan to India for Covid-19 Vaccine:
(a) $1.5 billion loan
(b) $2.5 billion loan
(c) $3 billion loan
(d) $4 billion loan
(e) $5 billion loan
149. What is the current SLR?
(a) 12%
(b) 18%
(c) 20%
(d) 21%
(e) None of the above
150. The theme of HARBINGER 2021 is:
(a) Smarter Digital Payments
(b) Digitalized India
(c) Smarter Service
(d) Connecting India
(e) None of the above
151. Which of the following is the largest rubber production in which state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
(e) Rajasthan
152. Where is Wildlife Institute of India established?
(a) Dehradun
(b) Shimla
(c) Jaipur
(d) Delhi
(e) Chandigarh
153. Noida International Airport is being partnered by which company?
(a) Yamuna International Airport Pvt Ltd (YIAPL)
(b) Delhi Development Authority (DDA)
(c) Union Pacific Corporation
(d) National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation
(e) Reliance Infrastructure Limited
154. How much amount has been extended in the PLI scheme – Solar Cell?
(a) Rs. 24,000 crores from the existing Rs. 4,500 crore
(b) Rs. 19,000 crores from the existing Rs. 4,500 crore
(c) Rs. 15,000 crores from the existing Rs. 4,500 crore
(d) Rs. 20,000 crores from the existing Rs. 4,500 crore
(e) Rs. 27,000 crores from the existing Rs. 4,500 crore
155. Which of the following ministry has launched Solar Charkha Mission?
(a) Ministry of Petroleum
(b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Finance
(e) Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises
156. 4th Submarine INS Vela belongs to which of the class Submarine?
(a) Khanderi
(b) Kalvari-class submarines
(c) Karanj
(d) Arihant
(e) Soviet submarines ships
157. What is the CRAR determined for Public sector banks?
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 7%
(d) 8%
(e) 9%
158. Which of the following continents is the 3rd Largest Continent?
(a) North America
(b) Australia
(c) South America
(d) Asia
(e) Africa
159. Which of the following is the highest population density of the Indian state according to the 2011 census?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Bihar
(e) Maharashtra
160. What is the Paytm IPO amount?
(a) Rs. 18,300 crore
(b) Rs. 3800 crore
(c) Rs. 1500 crore
(d) Rs. 2000 crore
(e) Rs. 5500 crore
161. How many All India Financial Institutions in India?
(a) 29
(b) 30
(c) 31
(d) 32
(e) 33
162. Which of the following institutions is the highest ever profit in Quarter-2?
(a) SBI
(b) Yes Bank
(c) Axis Bank
(d) ICICI Bank
(e) LIC
163. In which of the following places is Khuda Baksha Library situated?
(a) Patna, Bihar
(b) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
(c) New Delhi, Delhi
(d) Agra, Uttar Pradesh
(e) Nagpur, Maharashtra
164. What is another name of NDB?
(a) BRICS Bank
(b) UNESCO
(c) UNICEF
(d) WHO
(e) IDBI
165. 1st ever QR Code-based Soundbox launched by which SFB?
(a) Equitas Small Finance Bank
(b) Jana’s Small Finance Bank
(c) AU Small Finance Bank
(d) Utkarsh Small Finance Bank
(e) Ujjivan Small Finance Bank
166. Which of the following bancassurance company recently partnered with the India Post Payment Banks recently?
(a) Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance Company
(b) Max
(c) LIC
(d) Axis
(e) GIC
167. What is RBI Retail Direct Scheme?
(a) Refers to the RBI Retail Direct scheme formulated to facilitate investment in Government Securities by individual investors.
(b) Means directly deals with the public.
(c) Means disinvestment of the public sector.
(d) All (a), (b), and (c).
(e) None of the above.
168. What is National Family Health Survey?
(a) The NFHS is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India.
(b) The NFHS is a district-level survey.
(c) The NFHS is a ranking of the infrastructure.
(d) The NFHS is a rate of the services.
(e) All of the above.
169. ESG stands for
(a) Environmental, Social, and Governance.
(b) Eminent service in Geology.
(c) Eminent service in Geography.
(d) Embracing service of goodness.
(e) None of the above.
170. Cheetah and Chetak are the names of
(a) Ships
(b) Helicopters
(c) Fighter plane
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(e) Both (a) and (b)
171. Who amongst the following written the book “Business Sutra”?
(a) Jeet Thayil
(b) Amitav Ghosh
(c) Arundhati Roy
(d) Jhumpa Lahiri
(e) Devdutt Pattanaik
172. When Janjati Gaurav Diwas/ Birsa Munda Diwas is celebrated?
(a) 15 November
(b) 16 November
(c) 17 November
(d) 18 November
(e) 19 November
173. Inner Line permit system is not required in which state:
(a) Sikkim
(b) Assam
(c) West Bengal
(d) Tripura
(e) Laddakh
174. What is Infrastructure Bond?
(a) A bond is a fixed-income instrument that represents a loan made by an investor to a borrower (typically corporate or governmental).
(b) Infrastructure bonds are borrowings to be invested in government-funded infrastructure projects within a country. They are issued by governments or government-authorized Infrastructure companies or Non-Banking Financial Companies.
(c) It is when a retail firm is looking for short-term funding to finance some new inventory for an upcoming holiday season.
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
175. In which year tiger was announced as the National Animal:
(a) 1973
(b) 1975
(c) 1983
(d) 1987
(e) 1989
176. INS Vishakhapatnam manufactured by
(a) Mazagon Dock Limited
(b) Hyundai Heavy Industries Shipbuilding Products and Services
(c) STX Offshore & Shipbuilding
(d) Daewoo Shipbuilding & Marine Engineering Co., Ltd (DSME)
(e) China State Shipbuilding Corporation (CSSC)
177. Steel Company to open steel plant in Odisha?
(a) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd.
(b) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(c) Essar Steel India Ltd.
(d) Jindal Steel & Power Ltd.
(e) Arcelor Mittal Nippon Steel (AM/NS)
178. Who has written this book “Emperor Of All Maladies”?
(a) Meghna Pant
(b) Irwin Allan Sealy
(c) Siddhartha Mukherjee
(d) Meghan Markle
(e) Salman Rushdie
179. In which year UN convention of Sea and Lands for maritime borderline in ocean signed?
(a) 1978
(b) 1979
(c) 1981
(d) 1982
(e) 1989
180. What is the purpose of the Commission for OBC in 2017?
(a) The Bill states that the repeal of the Act will not affect: (i) any rights, privileges, or liabilities acquired under the Act, (ii) any penalty incurred because of previous violation of the Act, or (iii) other acts that may have been done under previous operation of the Act.
(b) The bill was introduced alongside the Constitution (123rd Amendment) Bill, 2017, that provides for setting up of the National Commission of Backward Classes under the Constitution.
(c) The Bill seeks to repeal the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993. The Act established the National Commission for Backward Classes.
(d) Only (a)
(e) All (a), (b), and (c)
181. Isobaric Lines drawn on a map denote
(a) heat
(b) pressure
(c) density
(d) temperature
(e) area
182. In which state is Chumbi Valley located?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Tripura
(e) Meghalaya
183. Which of the following organizations has Ruchir Sharma left?
(a) Morgan Stanley Investment Management
(b) Investment Association
(c) Global Impact Investing Network
(d) Invest India
(e) Allianz Global Investors
184. As per the agreement between India & USA, how much percent of equi-relaxation on e-commerce?
(a) 1%
(b) 2%
(c) 3%
(d) 4%
(e) 5%
185. OMBUDSMAN to be appointed for which type of NBFC who has ₹5000 crore of capital?
(a) Internal Ombudsman
(b) External Ombudsman
(c) Officer
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(e) None of the above
186. How much amount of penalty levied on ATM Manager Tata Communication Payment Ltd?
(a) ₹1 Crore
(b) ₹2 Crores
(c) ₹3 Crores
(d) ₹4 Crores
(e) ₹5 Crores
187. Which of the following banks has raised ₹3595 crore bonds?
(a) Axis Bank
(b) Yes Bank
(c) ICICI Bank
(d) Kotak Mahindra Bank
(e) SBI
188. At which place is the headquarters of the Central Tibetan Parliament situated?
(a) Dehradun
(b) Dharamshala
(c) Shimla
(d) Nainital
(e) Ladakh
189. Who is the head of the committee of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code?
(a) Ravi Mittal
(b) Ritesh Kavdia
(c) Navrang Saini
(d) Pradeep Kumar Joshi
(e) Injeti Srinivas
190. Nandur Madhmeshwar bird sanctuary is situated in which state/UT?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh
(e) Andaman & Nicobar Islands