Reasoning & Computer Aptitude
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Read the instructions carefully to answer the questions given below.
There are six different potters – A, B, C, D, E, and F. Makes pots starting from Monday to Saturday (of the same week) not necessarily in the same order. The number of pots made by six potters on six different days are 6, 8, 14, 17, 20, and 29 (Not necessarily in the same order).
On Wednesday the number of pots made are 14. The sum of the number of pots made on Monday and Thursday is divisible by the number of pots made on Wednesday. There are two potter between one who makes 6 pots. There are two potter between A and F. There are three potters between E and C. B not makes the least number of pots. The sum of pots made on Wednesday and Saturday is two more than the number of pots made on Friday. The difference between the number of pots made by A and F is less than five. The potter E makes the pots on one of the days after the potter which makes 6 pots. The potter which made more than 14 pots is immediately after the one which makes 14 pots. Potter E makes more number of pot than potter C.
1. Which of the following is made by potter B?
(a) 6
(b) 14
(c) 20
(d) 29
(e) 17
2. The least number of pots were made on
(a) Monday
(b) Saturday
(c) Thursday
(d) Tuesday
(e) Friday
3. Which of the following combinations of number of pots made – Day is true for F?
(a) 6 – Tuesday
(b) 8 – Monday
(c) 29 – Friday
(d) 20 – Thursday
(e) 14 – Wednesday
4. Which potter makes the pots, that is multiple of 7?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) F
(d) E
(e) B
5. 29 pots were made on which day?
(a) Tuesday
(b) Saturday
(c) Friday
(d) Monday
(e) Wednesday
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10): Read the information carefully to answer the questions given below.
Nine persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X have attended the webinars in three different months April, May, and June. With three webinars in each month scheduled on 7th, 13th, and 24th of the month but not necessarily in the same way. Each of them participated for different topics of webinar, which is toy, watch, juice, water, bike, pen, butter, head phone and mobile. All of the information is not necessarily in the same order. P attend the webinar in a month having 30 days. There are two people attend the webinar between P and the one who attended the webinar of toy. P attended on date 13th of any months. W attended the webinar of juice on even number of date of a month having 30 days. The one who attended the webinar of bike goes to 7th date of a month having more than 30 days. T goes to attended just before X, who goes on even numbered date of a month having more than 30 days. V attended the webinar of bike. Webinar of watch is scheduled just before webinar of water. There are one webinar scheduled between webinar of Q and R. T attended the webinar on odd number of date of any month. The one who attended the webinar of toy goes just before the one who goes for pen. U is the last person to attended the webinar and he goes for headphone. S attended in the month having even number of days and on 7th date but not for webinar of mobile. There are one webinar scheduled between webinar of butter and webinar of head phone.
6. R attended the webinar in which month?
(a) April
(b) 24th May
(c) 13th June
(d) 7th May
(e) 7th June
7. T attended the webinar of toy on?
(a) 7th May
(b) 13th May
(c) 24th June
(d) 13th April
(e) 7th June
8. Q attended the webinar of?
(a) Water
(b) Pen
(c) Headphone
(d) Watch
(e) Mobile
9. Who attended the webinar on 24th June?
(a) W
(b) S
(c) X
(d) T
(e) U
10. Who participated in the webinar of mobile?
(a) Q
(b) X
(c) W
(d) S
(e) R
Directions (Qs. 11–13): These questions are based on the following information.
- ‘M is the mother of N’ is represented by ‘M @ N’
- ‘M is the husband of N’ is represented by ‘M $ N’
- ‘M is the sister of N’ is represented by ‘M # N’
- ‘M is the son of N’ is represented by ‘M * N’
11. If D # J * T $ R @ L, then which of the following is definitely true?
(a) L is the brother of D
(b) D is the sister of L
(c) D is the brother of J
(d) L is the brother of J
(e) None of these
12. Which of the following indicates the relationship “R is the daughter of T”?
(a) R # D * B @ T
(b) R # D * B $ T
(c) T @ B # R * D
(d) T @ B # D * R
(e) None of these
13. P * H @ D * K, represents what relation of K with P?
(a) Mother
(b) Father
(c) Father-in-law
(d) Sister
(e) None of these
Directions (Qs. 14–18):
A word and number arrangement machine arranges an input line of words and numbers rearranging them following a particular logic. An illustration of the same is given below:
Input: nature 47 total 23 work 13 create 77 enjoy 43 universe 84
Step I: work nature 47 total 23 create 77 enjoy 43 universe 84 13
Step II: universe work nature 47 total create 77 enjoy 43 84 13 23
Step III: total universe work nature 47 create 77 enjoy 84 13 23 43
Step IV: nature total universe work create 77 enjoy 84 13 23 43 47
Step V: enjoy nature total universe work create 77 13 23 43 47 84
Step VI: create enjoy nature total universe work 13 23 43 47 84 77
Step VI is the final output.
On the basis of the above illustration, find the different steps of rearrangement for the input given below:
Input: request 52 demand 21 buy 10 trust 32 once 84 share 45
14. Which of the following is third to the left of ’52’ in Step III?
(a) share
(b) 10
(c) request
(d) 21
(e) None of these
15. What is the sum of the numbers that come between ‘trust’ and ‘once’ in step II?
(a) 107
(b) 52
(c) 32
(d) 84
(e) None of these
16. Which of the following pairs represents the elements at extreme ends in step V?
(a) once 45
(b) demand 45
(c) demand 52
(d) once 52
(e) None of these
17. Which of the following steps is – “once request share trust demand buy 84 45 10 21 32 52”?
(a) Step II
(b) Step III
(c) Step IV
(d) Step V
(e) None of these
18. What is the difference of the 9th element from the right end in step III and the 8th element from the left end in step VI?
(a) 19
(b) 29
(c) 25
(d) 31
(e) 26
Directions (Qs. 19–23): Read the given information and carefully answer the following questions.
A certain number of people are sitting around a circular table. Some of them are facing towards the centre and others are facing away from the centre, and there are few vacant seats as well.
Dhirendra does not sit to the left of Dimple. No one sits to the immediate left of Dhirendra. Only two people sit between Darpan and Dimple. Dimple sits opposite to Naina and does not face towards the centre. Darpan, who does not face inside, is an immediate neighbour of Dhirendra. Naina faces a direction opposite to Dhirendra who sits fourth to the right of Kritika and faces outside. Naina sits immediate right of Kritika who sits second to the left of Indu. Indu does not face towards the centre. The number of people sitting between Indu and Dimple is the same as the number of people sitting between Darpan and Naina. Naina does not face away from the centre.
19. How many people sit between Darpan and Indu?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
20. How many people are sitting in the circular table?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 8
(e) 4
21. Who among the following faces inside?
(a) Dimple
(b) Indu
(c) Dhirendra
(d) Darpan
(e) No one
22. Who sits immediately left of Kritika?
(a) Naina
(b) Darpan
(c) No one
(d) Indu
(e) Dimple
23. How many vacant seats are there in between Dimple and Naina, if we count from the right of Dimple?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) No one
(e) Four
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 24–28): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
There are 3 parallel rows, row I, row II, and row III, each row consists of 6 people.
People sitting in row I are facing south. The first three people in row II from the western side are facing north, while the next three people are facing south. All persons in row III are facing towards the north direction.
Row I is to the north of row II, and row II is to the north of row III. L is sitting at the western side of M. W is not sitting at the third position from any of the extreme corners. P is facing south and sitting at the first position from the eastern side. N is not sitting in row III. R was sitting adjacent to the person who was sitting in front of P.
One person is sitting between J and the person who is facing R. U is sitting at one of the corners and facing the south direction. Z is not sitting at any of the corners. O is sitting at one of the corners. Three persons are sitting between L and M, and both of them are facing the same direction. Q is sitting third to the right of P. K is sitting at one of the eastern corners and facing the north direction. X is sitting in front of J. V is sitting third to the right of L. There are two persons between the one who is sitting in front of V and T. Y is not sitting in row I, while Z is neither sitting in row I nor in row III. W and O are not sitting in the same row, but W is sitting in front of the person who is sitting second to the right of Z. P and I are facing the same direction, but they are not neighbors. H is sitting in front of Y.
24. Who is sitting fourth to the right of the person who is sitting adjacent to L?
(a) T
(b) M
(c) K
(d) O
(e) None of these
25. As W is related to I and X is related to T, which of the following is related to Z?
(a) H
(b) O
(c) T
(d) X
(e) R
26. Four of the following five options are somehow similar to each other and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) U
(b) L
(c) T
(d) O
(e) J
27. Which of the following is sitting second to the right of ‘R’?
(a) X
(b) Z
(c) O
(d) No one
(e) None of these
28. Who is sitting at fourth from the east in row I?
(a) W
(b) I
(c) Q
(d) X
(e) J
29. If ‘eye’ is called ‘hand’, ‘hand’ is called ‘mouth’, ‘mouth’ is called ‘ear’, ‘ear’ is called ‘nose’, and ‘nose’ is called ‘tongue’, with which of the following would a person hear?
(a) Eye
(b) Mouth
(c) Nose
(d) Ear
(e) None of these
30. If ‘oranges’ are ‘apples’, ‘bananas’ are ‘apricots’, ‘apples’ are ‘chillies’, ‘apricots’ are ‘oranges’ and ‘chillies’ are ‘bananas’, then which of the following are green in colour?
(a) Apricots
(b) Apples
(c) Chillies
(d) Bananas
(e) Oranges
31. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the third, the fifth, the sixth, and the eleventh letters of the word MERCHANDISE, using each letter only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer, and if more than one such word can be formed, mark ‘T’ as the answer.
(a) H
(b) E
(c) R
(d) X
(e) T
Directions (Qs. 32–33): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code, ‘colours of the sky’ is written as ‘ki la fa so’, ‘rainbow colours’ is written as ‘ro ki’ and ‘sky high rocket’ is written as ‘la pe jo’, and ‘the rocket world’ is written as ‘pe so ne’.
32. Which of the following is the code for ‘colours sky high’?
(a) ro jo la
(b) fa la jo
(c) la ki jo
(d) ki ro la
(e) fa ki jo
33. Which of the following will/may represent ‘the’?
(a) Only fa
(b) Only la
(c) Only so
(d) Either (a) or (b)
(e) Either (a) or (c)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 34-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A child is looking for his father. He went 90 meters in the east before turning to his right. He went 20 meters before turning to his right again to look for his father at his uncle’s place 30 meters from this point. His father was not there. From here he went 100 meters to his north before meeting his father in a street.
34. How far did the son meet his father from the starting point?
(a) 90 m
(b) 100 m
(c) 260 m
(d) 140 m
(e) None of these
35. How much distance covered by the child to meet his father?
(a) 205 m
(b) 200 m
(c) 240 m
(d) 220 m
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 36-39): In the following questions, the symbols $, ©, ×, @, and # are used with the following meanings:
- P $ Q means P is not smaller than Q.
- P © Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
- P @ Q means P is not greater than Q.
- P × Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
- P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer:
(a) If only conclusion I is true;
(b) If only conclusion II is true;
(c) If either I or II is true;
(d) If neither I nor II is true;
(e) If both I and II are true.
36.
Statements:
Z $ K, K × T, T © F
Conclusions:
I. F # Z
II. Z × T
37.
Statements:
K × B, B @ D, D # K
Conclusions:
I. B @ K
II. B # K
38.
Statements:
N © R, R @ M, M $ J
Conclusions:
I. N © M
II. N # M
39.
Statements:
S $ T, T @ R, R # M
Conclusions:
I. M × T
II. M © T
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 40-43): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and answer the questions.
Give answer: (a) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (b): if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (c): if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (d): if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (e): if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
40. Among P, Q, R, S, and T sitting in a straight line, facing North, who sits exactly in the middle of the line?
I. P sits third to the left of S. T is an immediate neighbour of P as well as R.
II. T sits second to the left of S. Q is not an immediate neighbour of T or S.
41. Are all the five friends – A, B, C, D, and E – sitting around a circular table facing the centre, who sits to the immediate right of A?
I. E sits to third to the right of D. A is not an immediate neighbour of D.
II. C sits to second left of B. A is not an immediate neighbour of D.
42. Who among P, Q, R, S, and T is the tallest?
I. P is taller than S and T but shorter than R. Q is taller than S.
II. T is taller than S. P is not the tallest.
43. Is ‘EAST’ the word formed after performing the following operation on a word containing four letters?
I. There is only one letter between A and T, E is to the left of A.
II. The word does not begin with T. There is only one letter between E and S, T is not an immediate neighbor of E.
Directions (Qs. 44–45):
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II.
An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer:
(a) If only assumption I is implicit.
(b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either assumption I or II is implicit.
(d) If neither assumption I nor II is implicit.
(e) If both assumptions I and II are implicit.
44. Statement:
The General Administration Department has issued a circular to all the employees informing them that henceforth the employees can avail their lunch break at any of the half-hour slots between 1.00 pm and 2.30 pm.
Assumptions:
I. The employees may welcome the decision and avail lunch break at different time slots.
II. There may not be any break in the work of the organization as the employees will have their lunch break at different time slots.
45. Statement:
The Government has decided against the reduction of prices of petroleum products though there is a significant drop in the crude oil prices in the international market.
Assumption:
I. The prices of crude oil in the international market may again increase in the near future.
II. The present price difference of petroleum products will help the government to withstand any possible price rise in the future.
Directions (Qs. 46–47): In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance and may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question has two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong or weak argument.
Give answer:
(a) If only Argument I is Strong.
(b) If only Argument II is Strong.
(c) If either Argument I or II is Strong.
(d) If neither Argument I nor II is Strong.
(e) If both Argument I and II are Strong.
46. Should there be a complete ban on mining coal in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, the present stock of coal will not last long if we continue mining at the present rate.
II. No, we do not have alternate energy sources of sufficient quantity.
47. Should there be uniforms for students in the colleges in India as in the schools?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this will improve the ambience of the colleges as all the students will be decently dressed.
II. No, college students should not be regimented, and they should be left to choose their clothes for coming to college.
Directions (Qs. 48–49): In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision taken for improvement, follow-up, further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc., on the basis of information given in the statement to be true. Then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
Give answer:
(a) If only I follows.
(b) If only II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows.
(d) If neither I nor II follows.
(e) If both I and II follow.
48. Statement: A major river in the city was reduced to a polluted and dirty canal after tonnes of sewage made way into it over the years.
Course of action:
I. All those who dumped garbage and sewage into the river should be penalized.
II. The Government should modify the sewage system and find an alternate way to dump the city’s waste.
49. Statement: Water table in most parts of the state has gone down to such a level that its extraction for irrigation purposes is not economical anymore.
Course of action:
I. Extraction of groundwater for any purpose in the state should be banned for some time in order to replenish the water table.
II. The Government should make provisions for alternative methods of irrigation so that the farmers are not compelled to use groundwater.
Directions (Q. 50): In each of the questions below are four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III, and IV. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.
50. Statement:
Some doctors are lawyers.
All teachers are lawyers.
Some engineers are lawyers.
All engineers are businessmen.
Conclusions:
I. Some teachers are doctors.
II. Some businessmen are lawyers.
III. Some businessmen are teachers.
IV. Some lawyers are teachers.
(a) None follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Only II and IV follow
(e) None of these
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Qs. 51-55): Study the following table, showing monthly sales of cars of five types by five automobile shops to answer these questions.
| Type | Automobile Shops | ||||
| P | Q | R | S | T | |
| A | 1250 | 3500 | 1360 | 2240 | 210 |
| B | 2100 | 3080 | 3700 | 4200 | 920 |
| C | 3460 | 4400 | 4860 | 4860 | 4760 |
| D | 900 | 680 | 700 | 1120 | 600 |
| E | 300 | 440 | 1200 | 1250 | 280 |
51. Which shop has the lowest sales of both type B and type E as compared to other shops?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) T
52. Which shop has a share of 15% sales of the total type D sold by all the shops?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) T
53. Which shop has the highest sale of cars of all the types?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) None of these
54. Which shop sells cars of type B seven times to that of type E sold by it?
(a) Only P
(b) Only Q
(c) Both P and Q
(d) Only T
55. Among all the shops, the lowest sale of type A is the highest sale of which of the following types?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) No such type exists
Directions (Qs. 56-60): Study the following pie-chart carefully to answer these questions.
Percentage-wise Distribution of Players Who Play Five Different Sports
Total Players are 4200 out of which Female Players are equal to 2000.
Total Players = 4200
Percentage of Players who play different sports
56. What is the average number of players (both male and female) who play football and rugby together?
(a) 620
(b) 357
(c) 230
(d) 630
(e) None of these
57. What is the difference between the number of female players who play lawn tennis and the number of male players who play rugby?
(a) 94
(b) 84
(c) 220
(d) 240
(e) None of these
58. What is the respective ratio of the number of female players who play cricket and the number of male players who play hockey?
(a) 20 : 7
(b) 4 : 21
(c) 20 : 3
(d) 3 : 20
(e) None of these
59. What is the total number of male players who play football, cricket, and lawn tennis together?
(a) 1,724
(b) 1,734
(c) 1,824
(d) 1,964
(e) None of these
60. Number of male players who play rugby is approximately what percentage of the total number of players who play lawn tennis?
(a) 33
(b) 39
(c) 26
(d) 21
(e) 43
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 61–65): In the paragraph, some information is given about some different trains. Study the given paragraph carefully and answer the related questions.
Train A starts its journey at 5 A.M. and reaches its destination at 7 P.M. the same day. Train D covers 25% more distance than Train A in 50% more time than A. B covers a distance equal to the total distance covered by A and D together and takes 2 hours more than A. Distance covered by Train E is 20% less than Train D. Speed of Train C is five times the time taken by Train B, and it takes equal time as Train A. Train C covers 12% more distance than Train A. Speed of Train C is 20% less than that of Train E.
61. What is the respective ratio of speeds of Train C and that of Train A?
(a) 5 : 8
(b) 25 : 28
(c) 28 : 25
(d) 13 : 17
(e) None of these
62. If speed of Train D is increased by 20%, then what is the time required to cover a distance covered by A?
(a) 12 hrs
(b) 10 hrs
(c) 20 hrs
(d) 7 hrs
(e) None of these
63. What is the average distance covered by A, C, and E together?
(a) 1210 km
(b) 960 km
(c) 1020 km
(d) 1040 km
(e) None of these
64. What is the respective ratio of the speed of B and that of D?
(a) 189 : 80
(b) 80 : 89
(c) 80 : 189
(d) 180 : 89
(e) None of these
65. What is the average speed of all trains together?
(a) 82.86 km/h
(b) 88.26 km/h
(c) 76.56 km/h
(d) 89.86 km/h
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 66–70): Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow.
A company produced five different products, viz mobile phones, pen drives, calculators, televisions, and washing machines. The total number of all the five products is 1650. 24% of the total number of products are mobile phones. One-sixth of the total number of products is pen drives. 14% of the total number of products is calculators. Remaining products are either televisions or washing machines. The number of washing machines is 50 more than the number of televisions produced.
66. What is the ratio of the number of washing machines to the number of calculators produced by the company?
(a) 17 : 11
(b) 19 : 11
(c) 11 : 17
(d) 19 : 13
67. If 24 per cent of the pen drives are defective, what is the number of pen drives which are not defective?
(a) 209
(b) 215
(c) 219
(d) 225
68. The number of televisions produced is approximately what per cent of the total number of calculators and washing machines produced together?
(a) 63
(b) 55
(c) 59
(d) 51
69. What is the difference between the total number of televisions and mobile phones together and the number of calculators produced?
(a) 534
(b) 524
(c) 514
(d) 523
70. What is the total number of pen drives, calculators, and washing machines produced by the company?
(a) 907
(b) 917
(c) 925
(d) 905
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 71–75): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and Give answer:
(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
71. What was the ratio between the ages of P and Q four years ago?
I. The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 3:4.
II. The ratio between the present ages of Q and R is 4:5.
72. What was the cost price of the suitcase purchased by Samir?
I. Samir got 25 percent concession on the labelled price.
II. Samir sold the suitcase for ₹ 2000 with 25 percent profit on the labelled price.
73. What is the height of a triangle?
I. The area of the triangle is 20 times its base.
II. The perimeter of the triangle is equal to the perimeter of a square of 10 cm side.
74. What percentage rate of simple interest per annum did Ashok pay to Sudhir?
I. Ashok borrowed ₹ 8000 from Sudhir for four years.
II. Ashok returned ₹ 8800 to Sudhir at the end of two years and settled the loan.
75. What is the speed of a running train?
I. The train crosses a signal post in 6 seconds.
II. The train crosses another train running in the opposite direction in 15 seconds.
76. Ms. Pooja Pushpan invests 13% of her monthly salary, i.e., ₹ 8554 in Mediclaim Policies. Later she invests 23% of her monthly salary on Child Education Policies; also, she invests another 8% of her monthly salary on Mutual Funds. What is the total annual amount invested by Ms. Pooja Pushpan?
(a) ₹ 28952
(b) ₹ 43428
(c) ₹ 347424
(d) ₹ 173712
(e) None of these
77. Simple interest on a sum of money for 4 yr at 7 pcpa is ₹ 3584. What would be the compound interest (compounded annually) on the same amount of money for 2 yr at 4 pcpa?
(a) ₹ 1162.32
(b) ₹ 1098.72
(c) ₹ 992.38
(d) ₹ 1231.76
(e) ₹ 1044.48
78. Ramesh had a sum of money. Two-thirds of the total money he invested in scheme A for 6 years and the rest of the money he invested in scheme B for 2 years. Scheme A offers simple interest rate of 12% per annum and scheme B offers compound interest (compounded annually) at a rate of 10% per annum. If the total sum obtained from both the schemes is ₹ 5610, what was the total amount invested by him in scheme A and scheme B together?
(a) ₹ 15000
(b) ₹ 10200
(c) ₹ 11500
(d) ₹ 10500
(e) ₹ 14640
79. A man sells three motors for ₹ 5,400, ₹ 3,300 and ₹ 4,350 respectively. He makes 20% profit on the first and 10% profit on the second but on the whole he loses $9\frac{3}{8}%$. What did the third motor car cost him?
(a) ₹ 6500
(b) ₹ 6900
(c) ₹ 5100
(d) ₹ 7200
(e) None of these
80. A man bought a scooter and a car. He sold all of them at 30% profit. Scooter is sold at 10% profit. Cost price of scooter is 1/10 of the cost of car. Marked price of a car is ₹ 4,50,000. If he bought scooter at a discount of 20% on marked price and car at a discount of 10% on marked price, then, what will be the ratio of marked price of scooter to the selling price of the car?
(a) 25/264
(b) 25/268
(c) 35/260
(d) 34/260
(e) None of these
81. The average age of the group having 3 members is 84. One more person joins the group and now the average becomes 80. Now a fifth person comes whose age is 3 years more than that of the fourth person replaces the first person. After this, the average age of the group becomes 79. What is the weight of the first person?
(a) 75
(b) 65
(c) 68
(d) 82
(e) 85
82. The sum of the ages of 4 members of a family 5 years ago was 94 years. Today, when the daughter has been married off and replaced by a daughter-in-law, the sum of their ages is 92. Assuming that there has been no other change in the family structure and all the people are alive, what is the difference in the age of the daughter and the daughter-in-law?
(a) 22 years
(b) 11 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 19 years
(e) 15 years
83. A has double the money of B and B has 50% more money than C. If the average money of all the three persons is 12000, how much money A have?
(a) $\frac{211000}{11}$
(b) $\frac{315000}{11}$
(c) $\frac{216000}{11}$
(d) $\frac{316000}{11}$
(e) None of these
84. One fill pipe A takes 3 minutes more to fill the cistern than two fill pipes A and B opened together to fill it. Second fill pipe B takes $21\frac{1}{3}$ minutes more to fill the cistern than two fill pipes A and B opened together to fill it.
When will the cistern be full if both pipes are opened simultaneously?
(a) 7 minutes
(b) 16 minutes
(c) 8 minutes
(d) 10 minutes
(e) 12 minutes
85. Two trains, 100 km apart, travel towards each other on the same track. One train travels at 40 km/hr; the other travels at 60 km/hr. A bird starts flying at a speed of 90 km/hr, at the same location of the faster train. When it reaches the slower train, it turns around and flies in the opposite direction at the same speed. When it reaches the faster train, again it turns around and so on. When the two trains collide, how far has the bird flown?
(a) 90 km
(b) 45 km
(c) 180 km
(d) 135 km
(e) None of these
86. A rectangular tank measuring 5 m × 4.5 m × 2.1 m is dug in the centre of the field measuring 13.5 m × 2.5 m. The earth dug out is spread evenly over the remaining portion of the field. How much is the level of the field raised?
(a) 4.0 m
(b) 4.1 m
(c) 4.2 m
(d) 4.3 m
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 87–88): What should come in place of the following question mark in the following number series?
87. 649.6875, 1299.375, 866.25, 346.5, 99, 22, ?
(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 10
(d) 12
(e) None of these
88. 30, 16, 10, 8, 8, 9, ?
(a) 12.75
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 10.5
(e) None of these
89. A vessel is filled with liquid, 3 parts of which are water and 5 parts are syrup. How much of the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water so that the mixture may be half water and half syrup?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/5
(d) 1/6
(e) None of these
90. A box contains 5 green, 4 yellow, and 3 white marbles. Three marbles are drawn at random. What is the probability that they are not of the same colour?
(a) 40/44
(b) 44/41
(c) 41/44
(d) 40/39
(e) 44/39
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 91–94): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give the answer:
(a) if x > y
(b) if x ≥ y
(c) if x < y
(d) if x ≤ y
(e) if x = y or no relation can be established between xxx and yyy
91.
I. $x^2 − 8x + 15 = 0 $
II. $y^2 − 13y + 40 = 0 $
92.
I. $x^2 − 3x + 2 = 0 $
II. $3y^2 − 7y + 4 = 0 $
93.
I. $2x^2 − 9x + 10 = 0 $
II. $5y^2 − 17y + 6 = 0 $
91.
I. $2x^2 − x – 15 = 0 $
II. $7y^2 − 19y + 10 = 0 $
DIRECTION (Q. 95): In the following question two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both equations and give the answer:
(a) if x > y
(b) if x ≥ y
(c) if x < y
(d) if x ≤ y
95.
I. $ \frac{15}{\sqrt{x}} + \frac{9}{\sqrt{x}} = 11\sqrt{x} $
II. $ \frac{\sqrt{y}}{4} + \frac{5\sqrt{y}}{12} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{y}} $
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96-100): What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
96. 68% of 1288 + 26% of 734 – 215 = ?
(a) 620
(b) 930
(c) 540
(d) 850
(e) 710
97. $(32.05)^2 – (18.9)^2 – (11.9)^2 = ?$
(a) 670
(b) 530
(c) 420
(d) 780
(e) 960
98. 6578 ÷ 67 × 15 = ? × 6
(a) 200
(b) 250
(c) 150
(d) 100
(e) 300
99. $ \frac{679}{45} \div \frac{23}{2130} \times \frac{126}{169} = ? $
(a) 540
(b) 760
(c) 800
(d) 1260
(e) 1040
100. $ \sqrt{5687} \times \sqrt{1245} \div \sqrt{689} = ? \div 13 $
(a) 840
(b) 910
(c) 1320
(d) 1120
(e) 1550
General English
DIRECTION (Qs. 101-106): Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Since Czech writer Karel Capek first mentioned robots in a 1920s play, humans have dreamed about intelligent machines. What if robots take over policing? What if nanny-bots look after our children and elderly? What if — and this has been rich fodder for dystopian literature — they became more intelligent than us? Surrounded as we are by the vestiges of our analogue world, to many of us, these wonderings may seem decades from fruition. But artificial intelligence (AI), the engine of the Fourth Industrial Revolution, is already very much with us. It is embedded in the recommendations we get on our favourite streaming or shopping site; in GPS mapping technology; in the predictive text that completes our sentences when we try to send an email or complete a web search. It promises to be even more transformative than the harnessing of electricity. And the more we use AI, the more data we generate, the smarter it gets. In just the last decade, AI has evolved with unprecedented velocity — from beating human champions at Jeopardy! in 2011, to vanquishing the world’s number one player of Go, to decoding proteins last year. Automation, big data and algorithms will continue to sweep into new corners of our lives until we no longer remember how things were “before”. Just as electricity allowed us to tame time, enabling us to radically alter virtually every aspect of existence, AI can leapfrog us toward eradicating hunger, poverty and disease — opening up new and hitherto unimaginable pathways for climate change mitigation, education and scientific discovery.
Already, AI has helped increase crop yields, raised business productivity, improved access to credit and made cancer detection faster and more precise. It could contribute more than $15 trillion to the world economy by 2030, adding 14% to global GDP. Google has identified over 2,600 use cases of “AI for good” worldwide.
A study published in Nature reviewing the impact of AI on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) finds that AI may act as an enabler on 134 — or 79% — of all SDG targets. We are on the cusp of unprecedented technological breakthroughs that promise to positively transform our world in ways deeper and more profound than anything that has come before.
Yet, the study in Nature also finds that AI can actively hinder 59 — or 35% — of SDG targets. For starters, AI requires massive computational capacity, which means more power-hungry data centres – and a big carbon footprint. Then, AI could compound digital exclusion. Robotics and AI companies are building intelligent machines that perform tasks typically carried out by low-income workers: self-service kiosks to replace cashiers, fruit-picking robots to replace field workers, etc.; but the day is not far when many desk jobs will also be edged out by AI, such as accountants, financial traders and middle managers.
Without clear policies on reskilling workers, the promise of new opportunities will in fact create serious new inequalities. Investment is likely to shift to countries where AI-related work is already established, widening gaps among and within countries. Together, Big Tech’s big four — Alphabet/Google, Amazon, Apple, and Facebook — are worth a staggering $5 trillion, more than the GDPs of just about every nation on earth. In 2020, when the world was ………………….. (A) from the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic, they added more than $2 trillion to their value. The fact is, just as AI has the potential to improve billions of lives, it can also replicate and exacerbate existing problems and create new ones. Consider, for instance, the documented examples of AI facial recognition and surveillance technology discriminating against people of colour and minorities or how an AI-enhanced recruitment engine, based on existing workforce profiles, taught itself that male candidates were preferable to female.
101. Which of the following statement/s can be inferred from the given passage?
(I) AI is embedded in every aspect of our lives.
(II) The evolution of AI has beaten human intelligence.
(III) AI can play a crucial role in the eradication of poverty and hunger.
(a) Both I and II
(b) Both II and III
(c) Only I
(d) Both I and III
(e) All I, II, and III
102. Why the author feels that AI can actively hinder Sustainable Development Goals?
(i) Huge computational activity resulting in a big carbon footprint.
(ii) Digital exclusion replacing low-income workers with intelligent machines.
(iii) Desk jobs will be removed by AI.
(a) Both I and III
(b) Both II and III
(c) Both I and II
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these
103. Which of the following support the fact that AI can be an enabler of SDG targets?
(a) Increasing crop yields
(b) Raised business productivity
(c) Improved access to credit
(d) Real-time and precise detection of cancer
(e) All of the above
104. Which of the following cannot be referred from the given passage?
(I) Lack of opportunities will result in generating equality.
(II) Investment shifting to AI-enabled countries will reduce gaps within countries.
(III) AI can both improve the lives of billions and worsen the current problems.
(a) Both I and II
(b) Both II and III
(c) Only II
(d) Both I and III
(e) All I, II, and III
105. How the author of the passage showcases the problems created by AI?
(a) Replicating job profiles of people and removing them with artificial intelligence.
(b) Discrimination of people of colour and minorities.
(c) Preferring male candidates to female as per the current workforce profiles using AI-backed recruitment systems.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(e) Big tech companies are boosting AI to generate more revenue than the GDP of any nation on earth.
106. Which of the following words can fit in blank (A) to make the sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful?
(a) Shocks
(b) Reeling
(c) Stun
(d) Upset
(e) Stagger
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 107-111): Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
The long-term effects of the coronavirus outbreak in the U.S. are still anybody’s guess, but most economists and experts are predicting significant negative impacts on GDP, jobs growth, and even population sizes. Data released by the Congressional Budget Office last week shows just how bad the U.S. government believes the outlook is for the future. According to projections released by the Congressional Budget Office, the predicted population of the U.S. over the next two and a half decades is expected to be substantially impacted by COVID-19. The new 2020 number of a predicted 374 million people living in the U.S. by 2046 is a revision of the 2018 estimate of 384 million. A big factor in the new number is that economists expect birth rates in the country to decline, correlating with higher unemployment rates and an increase in anxiety within the country associated with the pandemic and economic consequences.
Total GDP and labor productivity are expected to decline as well. In 2018, the projected average annual growth in labor productivity was expected to grow by 1.5 percent between the years 2031 and 2050. Now, economists expect that growth number to fall to just 1.3 percent – a small numerical decrease that could amount to larger quality of life consequences in the U.S. Growth in GDP is also expected to fall, going from a 2018 projection of 1.9 percent average annual growth to 1.6 percent between the years 2031 and 2050. According to the Wall Street Journal, these dips in projections are all expected to have a significant impact on the already astronomical national debt in the U.S. Economists don’t fully understand what an even faster growth of national debt will do to the country, but most are in agreement that it will accelerate over the next decade.
107. Which of the following is true as per the given passage?
(I) It’s hard to guess long-term effects of COVID in US.
(II) GDP will be negatively impacted by COVID.
(III) Jobs and population in US will be hugely affected by the pandemic.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Both I and III
(e) All of these
108. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the given passage?
(I) The birth rates are expected to decline by the economists.
(II) Anxiety and higher unemployment rates will have a minimal effect on population.
(III) The economic recovery of US is unpredictable looking at the current scenario.
(a) Both I and II
(b) Both II and III
(c) Only II
(d) Both I and III
(e) All I, II, and III
109. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?
(I) Labour productivity was to be increased by 1.5% between 2031-2050.
(II) Even a small decline in labour productivity can have a huge impact on quality of life in US.
(III) The dips in GDP projections will significantly impact the astronomical national debt.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Both I and III
(e) All of these
110. Which of the following is most similar in meaning with “CORRELATING” as highlighted in the passage?
(a) Contrasting
(b) Adhering
(c) Associating
(d) Describing
(e) United
111. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning with “ACCELERATE” as highlighted in the passage?
(a) Decelerate
(b) Surge
(c) Escalate
(d) Assist
(e) Promote
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 112-118):
In each of the questions below, a sentence is given with two blanks that indicate that some parts are missing. Identify the correct pair of words that fit in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct.
112. The proceedings saw ________ protest by the Opposition members accusing the government of ________ democracy.
(a) Objections, Unmanageable
(b) Agreeable, Clutter
(c) Vociferous, Killing
(d) Conquest, Destroy
(e) Conservatory, Exterminate
113. The SC flagged its concern that political parties could ________ crores of rupees received as donations through electoral bonds to ________ violent protests or even terror.
(a) Misuse, Bankroll
(b) Compulsion, Refine
(c) Rough, Consent
(d) Incompetent, Articulate
(e) Curb, Disorder
114. A/an ________ “double mutant” coronavirus variant – with a combination of mutations not seen ________ else in the world – has been found in India.
(a) Coexisting, Concurrently
(b) Dogged, Complying
(c) Absorbed, Somewhere
(d) Decrease, Insistence
(e) Unique, Anywhere
115. Warning that Pakistan will take advantage of the ________ among the youth in Punjab, as they had done in the past, he ________ the need to “learn from history”.
(a) Acquiescent, Included
(b) Plump, Disinclination
(c) Absorb, Assimilate
(d) Dissatisfaction, Stressed
(e) Integrate, Pressurized
116. A major concern in ________ Indian development is the widening socio-economic ________ across groups and regions.
(a) Decadence, Hesitance
(b) Contemporary, Disparity
(c) Willingness, Inclination
(d) Convert, Reticence
(e) Advocate, Patronize
117. While the establishment continues to ________ the internal nature of the issues raised, it is also beginning to counter the criticisms ________.
(a) Planned, Bring
(b) Inadvisable, Upswing
(c) Ascent, Rise
(d) Underline, Aggressively
(e) Judicious, Convince
118. New Delhi was well within its rights to offer the sovereignty ________ and say it did not care but it has engaged the critics, not on facts but on ________.
(a) Angle, Pitch
(b) Heel, Acclaim
(c) Shrug, Values
(d) Accolade, Compliment
(e) Allegation, Strength
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 119-125): Read each of the following sentences to find out if there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number (A, B, C, or D) of this part is your answer. If there is no error in the statement, then mark option (e) as your answer choice.
119. Amid the lockdown and travel bans triggered (A)/ by the 2019 novel coronavirus outbreak in China, (B)/ fears have been expressed about their impact on the (C)/ health of the global economy as a whole. (D)/ No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
120. The 24-year-old woman lecturer succumbed to (A)/ injuries a week after he was set (B)/ ablaze by a jilted lover near the Hinganghat area in (C)/ Maharashtra’s Wardha district, on February 3. (D)/ No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
121. In any election campaign, the media (A)/ plays an important role in dissemination (B)/ of information and, thus, enabled the (C)/ people to make a well-informed choice. (D)/ No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
122. The Hummer, which was first marketed in 1992 and then pulled out (A)/ in the market in 2008 following questions over (B)/ its viability after the economic slowdown, is making a (C)/ comeback, albeit with some ‘thunderous’ modifications. (D)/ No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
123. Actor Margot Robbie’s latest anti-hero ensemble (A)/ feature “Birds of Prey” has reportedly being (B)/ marketed by Warner Bros with a new title (C)/ in the waked of dismal opening weekend score. (D)/ No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
124. While the quotas have been politicized over the years, (A)/ the apex court has merely tried to make them practical (B)/, choosing to separated educational quotas from (C)/ jobs, where efficiencies depend on merit and performance. (D)/ No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
125. India has asked Vietnam to open its pharmaceutical (A)/ market for the Indian generic drugs and sought better market (B)/ access for several other products during (C)/ the delegation level talks between India or Vietnam. (D)/ No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Directions (Qs 126-131):
In the following questions, two columns are given containing three Sentences/phrases each. In the first column, sentences/phrases are A, B, and C, and in the second column, the sentences/phrases are D, E, and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark option (E), i.e., “None of these,” as your answer.
126.
| Column (I) | Column (II) |
| (A) The contemporary crisis is within | (D) focus on quality ingredients |
| (B) The objection is useful insofar as it checks sorry remnants | (E) western democracies is deep-rooted |
| (C) Then came Dalgona coffee, channelling | (F) of western cultural arrogance as well as ‘Knowledge imperialism’ |
(a) B-F, A-E
(b) A-F
(c) A-F, B-D
(d) B-F, A-E, C-D
(e) None of the above
127.
| Column (I) | Column (II) |
| (A) One year later, we are all more | (D) explain how the year influenced our cooking |
| (B) He has been making a weekly | (E) helps that lockdown triggered a wave of food |
| (C) Perhaps TikTok food trends best | (F) visit to the hide to document animal behavior |
(a) A-F
(b) A-F, B-D, C-E
(c) B-F, C-D
(d) B-F, A-E
(e) None of the above
128.
| Column (I) | Column (II) |
| (A) For in order to effectively counter its critics, the | (D) dimension, it does not often translate into all-round development |
| (B) Even when regions perform relatively better in one developmental | (E) entrepreneurs compared to Maharashtra or Gujarat |
| (C) Tamil Nadu is home to a higher share of lower caste | (F) establishment must first confront itself |
(a) A-D, B-F
(b) A-E, B-D
(c) A-F, B-D, C-E
(d) C-D, B-F
(e) None of the above
129.
| Column (I) | Column (II) |
| (A) Relatively higher wages could be offset by access to better | (D) has an intensity in his eyes, which was perfect project |
| (B) Processes of human development and economic dynamism | (E) can go hand-in-hand and not necessarily be sequential |
| (C) Prateik Babbar was always our first choice | (F) quality of labour inputs for competitive accumulation |
(a) A-E
(b) B-F, A-E, C-D
(c) B-F, C-D
(d) B-F, A-E
(e) None of the above
130.
| Column (I) | Column (II) |
| (A) The present regime withdrew from the commitments made to the UNHRC | (D) offer a more clear-cut definition of what constitutes ‘unfair’ trade practice |
| (B) A framework to bring less-known feature films to limelight, with the help of digital platforms, | (E) by its predecessor on constructive engagement with the international community |
| (C) A parliamentary panel has recommended that the government should | (F) will be an incentive to film-makers striving to narrate stories from the remote corners of the country |
(a) A-D
(b) B-F, A-E, C-D
(c) B-F, C-E
(d) B-F, A-D
(e) None of the above
131.
| Column (I) | Column (II) |
| (A) I started as a fine arts student in Vadodara | (D) and memories use olfactory data, linking them closely |
| (B) The parts of your brain that process your emotions | (E) chocolate ice cream made me feel complete in a way nothing else |
| (C) After getting my taste back, the first swirl of peanut butter has | (F) moved to screenwriting and directing |
(a) A-E, C-D
(b) A-D, B-E
(c) B-D, C-E
(d) B-D
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 132–135): In each question below, a word is given followed by four pairs. Choose the pair which states either the synonyms or the antonyms or a synonym and an antonym of the given word. If none of the four pairs are correct, then choose “None of these” as your answer choice.
132. Abstention
(a) Fatal, Dominance
(b) Chief, Diminutive
(c) Facile, Blemish
(d) Straighten, Merge
(e) Temperance, Sobriety
133. Rampant
(a) Campaigning, Governed
(b) Uncontrolled, Pervasive
(c) Abandoned, Checked
(d) Controlled, Insignificant
(e) Ruled, Decisive
134. Imprimatur
(a) Favor, Liberality
(b) Generous, Rejection
(c) Acceptance, Explicit
(d) Approval, Refusal
(e) Colossal, Reprove
135. Diligence
(a) Conserving, Idle
(b) Careless, Thrift
(c) Assiduous, Ignorant
(d) Attentive, Simple
(e) Earnest, Demanding
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 136–140):
Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) The written reply of the agriculture minister, Narendra Singh Tomar, to the question argued that India had improved its position in the GHI from the previous year to 2020.
(B) Responding to a question in Parliament about India being ranked 94th among 107 countries in the Global Hunger Index in 2020, the minister of state for agriculture laughed it off by saying that India feeds stray dogs sweets when they give birth.
(C) But the GHI is about hunger, not shortage — about access, not storage.
(D) Food may be inaccessible for a large number of Indians, but fig leaves are abundant on government premises.
(E) The second fig leaf produced the answer that there is no question of food shortage as the government has doubled the required amount of food in buffer stocks.
136. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
137. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
138. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
140. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
General/Financial Awareness
141. RBI nationalised on?
(a) 1st January 1948
(b) 1st January 1950
(c) 4th February 1950
(d) 1st January 1949
(e) None of these
142. Who is the CEO of Ayushmaan Bharat Yojna?
(a) Indu Bhushan
(b) Pawan Munjal
(c) Aditya Puri
(d) D. Rajkumar
(e) Ravi Pandit
143. Helsinki is the capital of which country?
(a) Finland
(b) Iceland
(c) Macedonia
(d) Nigeria
(e) Slovenia
144. Which of the following has closed their operation in India?
(a) PayPal
(b) Square Order
(c) Paydiant
(d) Apple Pay
(e) None of these
145. What is India’s GDP growth rate for 2021-22 as estimated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in its recent monetary policy?
(a) 8.7%
(b) 9.2%
(c) 10.5%
(d) 10.2%
(e) 7.9%
146. India has released commemorative postage stamp on which Anniversary of UN__
(a) 71st
(b) 73rd
(c) 76th
(d) 70th
(e) 75th
147. Bhawna Kanth becomes the 1st woman fighter pilot to be part of IAF belongs to which state?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Odisha
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Bihar
(e) Uttar Pradesh
148. Where is the headquarter of WTO?
(a) Washington D.C., USA
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) Moscow, Russia
(d) Dubai, UAE
(e) Paris, France
149. Recently, who has been elected as the Director-General of International Solar Alliance (ISA)?
(a) Raj Kumar Singh
(b) Rohit Patel
(c) Arun Sinha
(d) Ajay Mathur
(e) Pawan Munjal
150. Who among the following became the first Indian to finish on the podium at the Individual Wrestling World Cup, Belgrade (Serbia) in December 2020?
(a) Babita Phogat
(b) Sakshi Malik
(c) Deepa Karmakar
(d) Vinesh Phogat
(e) Anshu Malik
151. Who won the ICC Men’s T-20 cricketer of the decade award 2020?
(a) MS Dhoni
(b) Virat Kohli
(c) Joe Root
(d) Rashid Khan
(e) None of these
152. Where does ICICI Bank Representative Office?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Nepal
(c) UAE
(d) USA
(e) France
153. Government of India’s stake in NABARD?
(a) 70%
(b) 85%
(c) 90%
(d) 50%
(e) 100%
154. Recently, who reviewed the rules of Priority Sector Lending (PSL)?
(a) NHB
(b) IRDA
(c) RBI
(d) SEBI
(e) NABARD
155. Diego Maradona, who passed away in November 2020, was related to which sport?
(a) Hockey
(b) Chess
(c) Cricket
(d) Tenis
(e) Football
156. Tapovan Vishnugad power plant is owned by NTPC Corporation, is situated in which state?
(a) Himachal
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Punjab
(e) Haryana
157. The mutual fund is regulated by?
(a) IRDA
(b) RBI
(c) SEBI
(d) AMFI
(e) None of these
158. Which company has been ranked the third most valued IT Services brand globally, according to Brand Finance?
(a) Infosys
(b) Wipro
(c) HCL
(d) TCS
(e) Apple
159. FASTags work on which technology?
(a) Sodar
(b) NFC
(c) LIDAR
(d) RFID
(e) None of these
160. In Budget 2021, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman how much amount proposed for recapitalisation of Public Sector Banks (in crores)?
(a) 15,000
(b) 25,000
(c) 20,000
(d) 35,000
(e) 50,000
161. India has developed its first-ever indigenously 9mm machine pistol jointly by DRDO and the Indian Army in January 2021. What is the name of the weapon?
(a) Dhanush
(b) Agni
(c) Virat
(d) Asmi
(e) Rasmi
162. Centre for Wetland Conservation and Management (CWCM) is?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Tamil Nadu
(e) Kerala
163. In December 2020, Hawker culture of which country was added to UNESCO’s list of intangible cultural heritage of Humanity?
(a) France
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Singapore
(d) Moscow
(e) Thailand
164. PM Modi laid the foundation stone of the Light House Project (LHPs). It is related to—
(a) IT
(b) Electricity
(c) Housing
(d) Defence
(e) Water
165. Who heads the National Disaster Management Authority?
(a) Defence Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Finance Minister
(e) None of these
166. Who makes rules and regulations for the Scheduled Commercial Banks in India?
(a) IRDA
(b) SEBI
(c) RBI
(d) Finance Ministry
(e) None of these
167. Who is the CEO of Twitter?
(a) Biz Stone
(b) Mark Zuckerberg
(c) Evan Williams
(d) Jack Dorsey
(e) None of these
168. The maturity period of the Senior Citizen Saving Scheme is?
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 6 years
(e) 5 years
169. How many seats are there in the West Bengal Lok Sabha assembly?
(a) 300
(b) 280
(c) 305
(d) 315
(e) 294
170. Aadivasi Mela 2021 was organised in?
(a) Lucknow, U.P.
(b) Bokaro, Jharkhand
(c) Bhubaneswar, Odisha
(d) Chandigarh
(e) Delhi
171. Which company launched India’s first field-ready electric tractor “Tiger Electric”?
(a) Tesla
(b) Tata
(c) Mahindra & Mahindra
(d) Sonalika
(e) Eicher Motors
172. Shahid Parwez plays which instrument?
(a) Tabla
(b) Shenai
(c) Sitar
(d) Flute
(e) Piano
173. “The Struggle of My Life” is the autobiography of ——
(a) Sachin Tendulkar
(b) Lal Krishna Advani
(c) Sachin Chauhan
(d) Chetan Bhagat
(e) Malala Yousafzai
174. Total Banking Ombudsmen in India, in 2019, is:
(a) 22
(b) 20
(c) 19
(d) 23
(e) 18
175. In February 2020, which of the following organizations released the India Energy Outlook 2021?
(a) Bureau of Energy Efficiency
(b) International Energy Limited
(c) Indian Energy Exchange Limited
(d) Ministry of power
(e) None of these
176. According to the Electoral Bond Scheme 2018, the validity of the electoral bonds has been defined as:
(a) 30 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 55 days
(e) 60 days
177. How many general insurance companies are there in India?
(a) 33
(b) 32
(c) 36
(d) 35
(e) 31
178. The Finance Ministry has reduced the residency limit of Indian citizens to form a One Person Company from 182 days to ______ days.
(a) 100
(b) 150
(c) 180
(d) 120
(e) 90
179. Which of the following banks has introduced a Kisan Credit Card loan scheme for fishermen in Tamil Nadu?
(a) ICICI Bank
(b) SBI
(c) Axis Bank
(d) Canara Bank
(e) Indian Bank
180. Which company is known as “Cleaning up NPA”?
(a) Asset Reconstruction Company
(b) Asset Cleaning Company
(c) Reconstruction Company
(d) Restoring Company
(e) None of these
181. In Jan 2021, which of the following has launched a new feature “Safe Pay” to make digital payments more secure and reduce online payment frauds?
(a) Google Pay
(b) Phone Pay
(c) Airtel Payments Bank
(d) India Post Payment Bank
(e) Paytm Payment Bank
182. What does “F” stand for in the scheme ‘PMFBY’?
(a) Fabric
(b) Font
(c) Frontier
(d) Fasal
(e) Foreign
183. As per India Energy Outlook 2020-21, India will surpass the EU to become the ______ largest energy consumer by 2030?
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Third
(d) Fifth
(e) Sixth
184. Which organisation is setting up the world’s largest zoo in the Jamnagar district of Gujarat?
(a) Tata Industries
(b) Ministry of Tourism
(c) Reliance Industries
(d) Ministry of Animal Welfare
(e) None of these
185. In which of the following years, the Basel-I accord was introduced?
(a) 1995
(b) 1972
(c) 2000
(d) 1988
(e) 2005
186. Which country plans to set up the first nuclear reactor on the moon?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) UAE
(e) Russia
187. Which of the following auctions the G-sec (Government Security)?
(a) Central Government
(b) Finance Ministry
(c) RBI
(d) SEBI
(e) None of the above
188. ______ is an account maintained in foreign currency with an Authorised Dealer Category – I bank.
(a) FCNR
(b) Current Account
(c) SB Account
(d) EEFC
(e) None of these
189. Which of the following allowed Non-Resident Indians (NRI) to subscribe to NPS?
(a) SEBI
(b) EXIM Bank
(c) GOI
(d) RBI
(e) None of these
190. What is the ‘Letter of Credit’ (L/c) also known as?
(a) Transferable Documentary Credit
(b) Documentary Credit
(c) Transferable Credit
(d) Countervailing Credit
(e) None of these